Yes. As I understand it, women were considered to be property. Like slaves.
This can be true, but it isn't always. It depends on social status more than gender.
For an upper-class man taking a lower-class wife, she would essentially be property as you say. But in the case where the wife's family is of an equal or higher class than the husband, she could have significant rights. It depends on what terms were negotiated between the groom and the bride's father.
For instance, Esau married Aholibamah, a princess of the Hivites. SHE later became DUKE over Edom AND the Hivites, taking a position of tribal leadership normally inherited from father-to-son.
On the other hand, Jacob took both Leah AND Rebekah as wives, and they do not appear to have retained ANY sort of rights. Their father instead negotiated 14 years of labor from Jacob as the bride-price.