I think he's referring to the verse after, rather than before:
1Co 7:7 For I would that all men were even as I myself. But every man hath his proper gift of God, one after this manner, and another after that.
Clearly everyone cannot be celibate - the human race would end.
There is disagreement among scholars of which place he is speaking of
Gills commentary
But I speak this by permission,.... Referring either to what he had said before, though not to all; not to 1 Corinthians 7:2 that for the "avoiding of fornication", every man should make use of his own wife, and every woman of her own husband;
since this is not by permission, but
by command, Genesis 2:24 that carnal copulation should be between one man and one woman in a married state; nor to 1 Corinthians 7:3 for that married persons ought
to render due benevolence to, and
not defraud each other, having
a power over each other's bodies, is a precept, and not a permission, Exodus 21:10
but to 1 Corinthians 7:5
their parting for a time,
and coming together again: it
is not an absolute command of God that
they should separate for a time,
on account of fasting and prayer, but
if they thought fit to do so by agreement, they
might; nor was there any positive precept for their
coming together again directly, after such service was over.
The apostle said this, not of commandment; but, consulting their good, gives this advice, lest Satan should be busy with them, and draw them into sin; but if they had the gift of continence, they might continue apart longer; there was no precise time fixed by God, nor did the apostle pretend to fix any: or it may refer to what follows after, that he would have all men be as he was; though he laid no injunction, but left them to their liberty; unless it can be thought to regard marriage in general, and to be said in opposition to a Jewish notion, which makes marriage a "command"
Gills adds as a possible after thought, that Paul could also be standing in opposition of a particular Jewish notion that makes marriage a command (which is not of Christ).
On the other hand we know in 1 Tim 4:3 that Paul himself
calls the actual forbidding of marriage a doctrine of a devil. (and so not of God) And since Paul says, "
I speak this by permission" between the advice between the married (above it) and to the unmarried and widows (below it) some believe he could be speaking regarding what he says after, as followed this way...
1 Cr 7:6 But I speak this by permission, and not of commandment.
1 Cr 7:7 For I would that all men were even as I myself. But every man hath his proper gift of God, one after this manner, (See Mat 19:11) and another after that.
1 Cr 7:8 I say therefore to the unmarried and widows, It is good for them if they abide even as I. (See Mat 19:9-11)
1 Cr 7:9 But if they cannot contain, (Mat 1911) let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn. (See 1 Tim 4:3)
Now when the disciples responded to what Jesus said in Mat 19:9 concerning marriage with the words, "
If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry." (which agrees with Paul's 1 Cr 7:7a's words) And where Jesus stated plainly, "
All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given" in Mat 19:11 (this also agrees again with Paul 1 Cr 7:7b's words ). So I do not see Paul speaking this by permission (in respects to an agreement) there but according to the truth of Christ concerning others (as himself is in an unmarried state) and speaking more specifically to the presently unmarried and widows in respects to marriage itself (after 1Cr 7:6, not before)
