The reason it says the action is being done to anther is because it is their own thoughts which are doing it to them. Testifying against or for them.No actually that's the grammar of the passage. "Accuse" is in the active voice, which means they are doing it to others. "Excuse" is a defective verb, which is to say the Middle/Reflexive voice and the Passive voice are spelled the same, so it could be either.
No, not at all.In this context, "excusing others" is used as part of an argument to show that the person doing this has at least some undersanding of right and wrong.
Paul knows the Law is being written on their hearts because they're believers. The issue isn't whether or not they know good and evil, or in what sense, he is discussing the FACT that they are doers of the Law who will be justified. This goes to his argument that the Jewish believers need to watch their prideful step and stopooking down on their believing Gentile brothers, as previously explained.
No. Their thoughts are going to bear witness for or against them when they are judged. This describes what will happen in the Day of Judgment.That being the case, Passive voice wouldn't fit, because that would require a second party speaker, not the person them self. Therefore this out be the Middle/Reflexive voice, meaning that they are doing this to themself, that is, excusing themself.
So they accuse others, and excuse themself. That's the meaning of this part of the passage.
Much love!