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The Nicene Creed states, "We believe in one Lord, Jesus Christ, the only Son of God, eternally begotten of the Father".The day Jesus was begotten from the dead you mean?
Acts 13:33 God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.
I have no idea what "eternally" begotten even means, I just use the words found in scripture as they speak I dont use the words of concepts outside of them.The Nicene Creed states, "We believe in one Lord, Jesus Christ, the only Son of God, eternally begotten of the Father".
Hello @The Learner,
Jesus became known as the begotten son, after his resurrection. Not prior. Those creeds don't hold up to any merit, concerning if one bases their view from the viewpoint of scripture, and not the idea and creeds that man has created.
So G3779 also G2532 Christ G5547 glorified G1392 not G3756 himself G1438 to be made G1096 an high priest; G749 but G235 he that said G2980 unto G4314 him, G846 Thou G4771 art G1488 my G3450 Son, G5207 to day G4594 have G1080 G0 I G1473 begotten G1080 thee. G4571 |
I agree, they flow beautifully between them.Hello @Verily,
A reasonable account is that John wrote his gospel after Yeshua's resurrection, I digress. It seems that perhaps even an attachment of 1 John could have came with the Gospel he had written. I was reading 1 John today, to myself.
1 John 1:1-4
That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked at and our hands have touched—this we proclaim concerning the Word of life. 2 The life appeared; we have seen it and testify to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and has appeared to us. 3 We proclaim to you what we have seen and heard, so that you also may have fellowship with us. And our fellowship is with the Father and with his Son, Jesus Christ. 4 We write this to make our[a] joy complete.
Thank you for your contributions.
It's not in scripture for a very good reason. Now if you left out the 'eternally' then yes, it is stated directly and by implication.What is the proof Jesus is eternally begotten son?
Thats sorta how I think of it, the scriptures do not speak like that, In the day he was begotten was when he rose from the dead. If you say, he never died, that's denying the gospel, if you say he offered himself eternally (after that fashion) then that would disagree with Heb 9:26 " For then must he "often" have suffered since the foundation of the world". He was born into the world once right, we preach God sent his son made of a woman made under the law, the word made flesh. But when he was begotten by God it was the day he was begotten from the dead, being the first begotten from the dead. But I have no clue to why people add to more words to what is written like that.It's not in scripture for a very good reason. Now if you left out the 'eternally' then yes, it is stated directly and by implication.
So why do most folks insist Jesus was ETERNALLY begotten as the Father's only conceived and birthed son?
Now that is the real question...
In the Nicene Creed, the Greek word translated as eternally "begotten" is "monogenes" which can be translated as unique.
John 3,16
CJB
“For God so loved the world that he gave his only and unique Son, so that everyone who trusts in him may have eternal life, instead of being utterly destroyed.
If the creed meant unique, this is how they match or line up
The answer is not found within us, nor can it be established by anything of our own will, through the efforts of human wisdom.What is the proof Jesus is eternally begotten son?
I'm sorry EB, as you encourage or promote a dangerous path to follow, by placing faith in men's doctrines and translations, not faith in scripture and the Spirit of God.The answer is not found within us, nor can it be established by anything of our own will, through the efforts of human wisdom.
We are called to know of Jesus' eternal existence, by accepting it through faith.
Prov. 8
[22] The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old.
[23] I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was.
[24] When there were no depths, I was brought forth; when there were no fountains abounding with water.
[25] Before the mountains were settled, before the hills was I brought forth:
[26] While as yet he had not made the earth, nor the fields, nor the highest part of the dust of the world.
[27] When he prepared the heavens, I was there: when he set a compass upon the face of the depth:
[28] When he established the clouds above: when he strengthened the fountains of the deep:
[29] When he gave to the sea his decree, that the waters should not pass his commandment: when he appointed the foundations of the earth:
[30] Then I was by him, as one brought up with him: and I was daily his delight, rejoicing always before him;
[31] Rejoicing in the habitable part of his earth; and my delights were with the sons of men.
In case you didn't notice, Prov. 8:22-31 is scripture, being the mind [Spirit] of Christ Himself, before he was made to be flesh.I'm sorry EB, as you encourage or promote a dangerous path to follow, by placing faith in men's doctrines and translations, not faith in scripture and the Spirit of God.
You must be confused again. Trying to twist scripture to fit human understanding and doctrine. There is no mind or Spirit of Christ before he was made flesh in these Proverb verses. Where are you drawing this information from?In case you didn't notice, Prov. 8:22-31 is scripture, being the mind [Spirit] of Christ Himself, before he was made to be flesh.
Try again, but this time reflect on 1 Cor. 2:5 first.
[5] That your faith should not stand in the wisdom of men [church-ianity], but in the power [anointing] of God.