ewq1938
Well-Known Member
- Jul 11, 2015
- 7,294
- 1,452
- 113
- Faith
- Christian
- Country
- United States
I perceive that they saw the preincarnate Christ, God the Son, and not God the Father Himself.
Yet the Lord of hosts is the Father, compared to Jesus who is the Lord King of Israel with the Lord of hosts being his redeemer.
Isa_44:6 Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.
The problem is the bible doesn't say no one has seen with their eyes the Father. It says no one has fully known Him. Reading an English translation will not help in this matter. One has to study the original language and read what scholars have to say on it.
John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
This phrase is a figure of speech that simply means no one has fully understood or known God except Jesus and that's because Jesus is God's son.
Clarke:
It is likely that the word seen, here, is put for known, as in Joh_3:32; 1Jo_3:2, 1Jo_3:6, and 3Jo_1:11; and this sense the latter clause of the verse seems to require: - No man, how highly soever favored, hath fully known God, at any time, in any nation or age; the only begotten Son