My argument proves Premil has to be true since NOSAS can't fit Revelation 20:6 if the first resurrection is being applied how Amils are applying it.
That is not true, as I have shown. But, you won't address my arguments about this. You just repeat the same things you always say without addressing anything I say. How can I take you seriously when that's the case?
You're the one arguing nonsense because you have John saying in Revelation 20:6 that some who have part in the first resurrection are not blessed and holy, and some who have part in the first resurrection the 2nd death has power over them.
I am not saying that at all. You are not even trying to understand what I'm saying because you are only able to look at all of this from the premil perspective and not from the amil perspective. Do you understand that having part in the first resurrection from the amil perspective occurs when someone becomes saved? Looking at it from that perspective, would you agree that those who are currently saved are blessed and holy? Let's say a saved person loses their faith and their salvation. Is that person still blesed and holy at that point? No, right? So, that's how an amil who agrees with NOSAS sees someone who had part in the first resurrection as no longer having part in the first resurrection. It's no different than someone being saved and no longer being saved. Do you understand what I'm saying? I'm trying to help you stop wasting so much of your time making strawman arguments. You are not disproving anything that anyone actually believes because you're not putting yourself in the position of an amil and looking at it from the amil perspective. You do that often.
Here is the text. Show me where it says any of that in the text.
Revelation 20:6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.
Show me where John ever said what you think he said. Where does it say that anyone in verse 6, that they are not blessed and holy? That the 2nd death has power over them.
This is not a valid argument unless you agreed that the following was a valid argument.
Show me where the following verse indicates that someone who believes in Jesus would end up not having everlasting life.
John 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that
whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
Show me where the following verse says that someone who believes in Jesus and is saved could ever lose their salvation.
Acts 16:30 And brought them out, and said, Sirs, what must I do to be saved? 31 And they said,
Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house.
These verses, in and of themselves, don't indicate that someone can lose their salvation. Using the kind of logic you use to interpret Revelation 20:6, we can use these verses to prove that OSAS is true. So, can you see how faulty your logic is? You either need to admit OSAS is true or admit that your approach to this is faulty and change your whole approach to how you look at all this. So, what will it be?
Here is what your doctrine of Amil does to the text if you apply NOSAS to it.
Not everyone who has part in the first resurrection are blessed and holy, some are, some aren't: on some the second death hath no power, on others the 2nd death has power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.
Talk about altering the text big time. Premils don't need to do this. Premils don't have to. The fate of the dead is already determined before they rise from the dead during the first resurrection in the future.
This is a ridiculous argument and does not reflect how I interpret the verse. What good does it do for your to waste all your time misrepresenting how I interpret the verse? For whatever reason, you cannnot understand what I believe. So please do me a favor and stop trying to argue against what I believe since you clearly do not understand what I believe at all. That's a waste of time. I don't know why you can't see that. I could make a similar argument about you doing this to the following text:
John 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that some who believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life and some who believeeth in him will perish and not have everlasting life.
Do you think it would be fair to accuse you of changing John 3:16 to what I showed above? I'm sure you would not think so. But that's exactly what you're doing by misrepresenting what I believe Revelation 20:6 says.
Besides, Revelation 20 only mentions 2 resurrection events, not 3 or more. And Amil has the most important resurrection event of all, 2nd to Christ's, the bodily resurrection of the saints, missing entirely in Revelation 20 and have it replaced with a spiritual resurrection instead. Further proof that Amil can't be the correct position since it is ludicrous that John would neglect to mention the bodily resurrection of saints in Revelation 20.
Another lame argument! You have the MOST important resurrection event missing entirely in Revelation 20! I'd say that's worse than having the SECOND most important resurrection event missing from it. Thes types of arguments are worthless and prove nothing. It's no wonder you have to try to resort to these types of arguments since you can't back up your view with scripture itself.
Revelation 20:5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
Logic says that if these don't live again until, this means someone already lived again much earlier.
Logic, and scripture, says that Jesus's resurrection was the first resurrection. But, that seemingly isn't important to you.
Acts 26:23 That
Christ should suffer, and that he should be the first that should rise from the dead, and should shew light unto the people, and to the Gentiles.
Also, Jesus said that a singular hour is coming when both the saved and lost would be resurrected. How do you reconcile that with your view?
John 5:28 Marvel not at this: for
the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice, 29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.
You change the above to say the HOURS are coming when all of the dead will be raised, but Jesus said the HOUR is coming when all of the dead will be resurrected. Not only that, but you have those two hours occurring 1,000+ years apart. You are changing that passage to say what you want it to say.
And that no one needs to live again multiple times. A person only needs to do that one time. Jesus proved that fact since He only needed to live again one time not two times. The point I'm making here, one can't also apply verse 5 and this--did not live again until--to those that have part in the first resurrection. They don't need to live again after the thousand years. They already began living again at the beginning of the thousand years. And that they only need to live again once. One time is sufficient.
You miss that verse 4 talks about the souls of the dead in Christ living and reigning with Christ. The Greek word translated as "lived" in verse 4, zao, is not a word used to refer to a resurrection. That's why a different word, anazao, is used to describe the rest of the dead living again after the thousand years. That word is used to describe a resurrection. Why wouldn't the word anazao have also been used to described those who have part in the first resurrection if it was talking about their bodily resurrection? Instead, a word is used to describe them that means to be alive and to live.
And besides, where does it ever say in verse 5 that those who have part in the first resurrection, they too don't live again until the thousand years expires? Change that verse as well, right? Why not? You already did a fine job of changing verse 6 to say what you want it to say rather than what it actually says. Why stop there, right?
You are being ridiculous here. You are the one changing all kinds of scripture to say what you want it to say. The list is long. I showed John 5:28-29 above. You do the same thing with Matthew 13:36-43, Matthew 13:47-50, Matthew 25:31-46, 2 Peter 3:10-12, 2 Thess 1:7-10 and many other scriptures.
A major weakness in your view of Revelation 20:6 is the FACT that being bodily resurrected is not what is required in order to avoid the second death. Yet, the verse indicates that having part in the first resurrection is a requrement for avoiding the second death. Another major weakness in your interpretation of Revelation 20:6 is the FACT that we are NOW priests of God and of Christ, as Revelation 1:5-6 and 1 Peter 2:9 indicates. You don't use those FACTS to help you interpret Revelation 20:6 becacause you don't want to allow scripture to interpret scripture in this case since you know that by doing so it disproves your premil doctrine.