Which brings up a question or two. Though Noah's flood may have been global, what happened in the days of Lot certainly wasn't. The point being, there were obviously still wicked ppl remaining on the earth in Lot's day since not everyone on the planet would have been living in the same city that was destroyed. Yet, the way you interpret Revelation 19, you apparently use Noah's flood to do that but then apparently disregard what happened in Lot's day, where it was not a global event that wiped out every wicked person on the planet.
David, is Jesus's second coming a global event or a local event? Read Luke 21:33-36 and 2 Peter 3:10-12 in case you're not sure. It's clearly a global event, right? So, what does that tell you about which of those events we can compare Christ's second coming to in terms of the scale of it? We can compare it to what happened in Noah's day in that sense. Which is exactly what Peter did here as well:
2 Peter 3:3 Knowing this first, that
there shall come in the last days scoffers, walking after their own lusts, 4 And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation. 5 For this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the word of God the heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water: 6
Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished: 7 But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of judgment and perdition of ungodly men.
You can see here that Peter compared the future event that will occur at Christ's second coming to the flood in Noah's day when "the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished". Notice Peter said "the heavens and the earth, which are now, BY THE SAME WORD are kept in store, reserved unto fire".
So, when comparing the flood destroying all unbelievers to what will happen at His second coming, I believe Jesus was comparing the scale of what happened in the flood to what will happen at His return. When comparing what happened on the day Lot went out of Sodom to the day He will return, I believe Jesus was comparing the way in which Sodom was destroyed to the way in which the earth will be destroyed when He returns, which is by fire.
Let's say you used the example of Lot's day instead, thus ignored the example pertaining to Noah's flood. How does that example prove that every wicked person on the planet is wiped out per what is recorded in Revelation 19?
Has it ever crossed your mind that the Noah's flood example is proving this will be a global event and that the LOT example is proving there will be survivors remaining other than the saved?
No, not at all. That would be a very strange way to suggest that there will be mortal survivors because it would imply there would be MANY survivors since Sodom obviously is only a small part of the whole world. I believe the way I understand it makes a lot more sense than that.
How else could we square it?
See above. He compared the scale of the destruction at His second coming to the flood, just like Peter did, and the method of destruction by coming it to the destruction of Sodom (by fire).