because that final 42 months had already been fulfilled by the Messiah in the middle of the week. That's what He came to do in the final week, during the final week, and He did it in the final week, during the final week, in the middle of the final week, 42 months earlier than was required of Him. That's all the 70 weeks was about: The Messiah and what He would come and do.
If it wasn't for this part in Daniel 9:27 below, you and I wouldn't even be having this discussion to begin with. We would be in full agreement about everything you just said.
and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.
I'm sorry that you refuse to accept, but that's on you not me, that that too is something that occurs during the 70th week. Because if you did accept that, there is no way that you would still be insisting there is no gap anywhere in the 70 weeks. Therefore, since I am convinced that that part too occurs during the 70th week, that contradicts what I quoted you saying above since this is clearly recorded in verse 27---and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate---and that it can't fit the 2nd half of the 70th week if Christ is the one that is meant in the midst of the week. And once again, the way you all are trying to get around this---and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate---this is not meaning during the 70th week, it is meaning outside of it.
What matters is what Gabriel intended for it to mean. In verse 25 he obviously intended it to mean that only the first 69 weeks are in focus, thus nothing outside of that. The same should be true for verse 27 since I see it unlikely that Gabriel can be all over the place instead of remaining consistent.
The way some of you are treating verse 27 is akin to how Preterists treat Matthew 24:34, for example. The context surrounding that verse is involving the end of this age and the 2nd coming. Yet they are applying verse 34 to the first century and 70 AD, thus disregarding context altogether. Or if not that, they are sorely misunderstanding the context of the verses surrounding verse 34 altogether. As to Daniel 9:27, there is no way to misunderstand the context. It is involving the 70th week. Not just some of it, all of it. The same way Matthew 24:32-51 is involving the end of this age and the 2nd coming. Not just just some of it, all of it is, including verse 34.
And look at the way you all have the 70 weeks ending. That being with the martyring of saints taking place rather than the destroying of the beast taking place. The latter leads to a better outcome. The former leads to more of the same rather than something better, such as the beast getting cast into the LOF, which is far better than saints continuing to be martyred for 2000 more years.
Some of you act as if, if there is a gap in the 70 weeks this means the last half doesn't involve Christ in that case. How could it not, if the last half is the 42 month reign and that it is then Christ that destroys this reign? Let's not forget, Christ comes twice, not just one time. We have to be willing to think outside of the box here. No one that denies there is a gap wants to do that, apparently. But not because they are unable to, they just don't want to.