Davidpt
Well-Known Member
There are many days of the Lord, not just the one second coming day. The day of the GWTJ is another day of the Lord and that is when the NHNE happens.
Obviously, if you are viewing some of these things in this manner, we are never going to get on the same page here ever. The NT mentions only one day of the Lord involving end times, and that it comes as a thief in the night.
verse 36 is not addressing verse 35.
Of course it is. Why wouldn't it be? What is the point of even bringing up that heaven and earth shall pass away if none of the surrounding context is connected with it? Why would Jesus be bringing up an unrelated subject having zero to do with anything He is saying at the time?
Matthew 24:34 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled.
35 Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.
36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
37 But as the days of Noe were, so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
First of all, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled, is explained per this part---Heaven and earth shall pass away---which then connects verse 34 with 35 and not the way Preterists take verse 34 to mean instead.
Which then means---When this generation shall pass it then equals heaven and earth shall pass away. Which can mean only one thing at this point, verse 36 is informing us, but of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
How can the day of the Lord coming as a thief in the night(2 Peter 3:10) not fit Matthew 24:36 to a T?
How can 2 Peter 3:10 remotely not be involving heaven and earth passing away, when it clearly even says so in that same verse? If the following is not heaven passing away---in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise---what is it that is passing away then? Obviously then, this also means this part---the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up--is meaning the passing away of the earth. Thus agrees with Matthew 24:35 when Jesus said heaven and earth shall pass away.
As of 2 Peter 3:10 we no longer have a habitable earth to dwell on. And unless there is a habitable earth to replace it at the time, what then? Is there such a thing as another earth between after it passes away and before a new one arrives? IOW, something like this. The old earth passes away, followed by another earth, a temporary one that is neither the first earth nor the new earth, followed by the new earth. IOW, nothing that the Bible remotely supports.
Unfortunately, you likely see my points as moot here since you are not interpreting these things in this manner. There is always the chance that I am interpreting these things correctly and that you are not. You could say the same in regards to me as well, I'm sure. But unless you can produce better, more convincing arguments than I just did here, we then end up with your opinion, where opinions alone prove nothing one way or the other vs. my arguments, where arguments at least can prove something one way or the other.