@Bob Estey just to add some refs for the royal we or majesty Creator-King
a few lines for sure and a video at the end..
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Just to make things interesting, let me throw in another interpretation. Ibn Ezra (Rabbi Abraham ben Meir ibn Ezra (1089?-1164) opines that G‑d wasn't referring to anybody, rather he was employing majestic plural, pluralis majestatis.
by Rabbi Menachem Posner serves as staff editor at Chabad.org, the world’s largest Jewish informational website.
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There is also a grammatical reason that could most naturally explain God's reference to Himself as "us". In Hebrew, there is a feature called the plural of majesty. The plural of majesty was used when a ruler or king spoke of himself in the plural form in reference to his greatness. Instead of speaking of "my rule," a king might speak of "our rule" over the land, even if he was speaking only of himself. Many Hebrew scholars believe this is the most appropriate understanding of these verses. God, in His greatness, referred to Himself as "us" as other rulers did during that time.
Why is the plural used for God in Genesis 1:26 and 3:22? Does the plural in Genesis 1:26 and 3:22 refer to the Trinity, to angels, or to something else?
www.compellingtruth.org
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Majestic plural / royal we
Narrowly speaking the majestic plural or royal we is the use of a plural pronoun to refer to a singular monarch, as in (for the reference see the Wikipedia page):
By the Grace of God, We, Alexander I, Emperor and Autocrat of All the Russias ...
As far as I know, when a pronoun is used to refer to God, a singular form is used. (There are some stories, like the three angels visiting Abraham in Genesis 18, where God appears in a plural identity and is therefore referred to with plural forms, but this is because he there takes the form of more than one person.)
The royal we is related to the T-V distinction in languages like French, which can use the second person plural pronoun (vous) as a polite / honorific form to address singular persons, instead of the singular form (tu). Biblical Hebrew has a different system for polite address; it avoids the second person and uses the third person instead. For example (1 Samuel 26:19):
וְעַתָּ֗ה יִֽשְׁמַֽע־נָא֙ אֲדֹנִ֣י הַמֶּ֔לֶךְ אֵ֖ת דִּבְרֵ֣י עַבְדֹּ֑ו
and now, let listen my lord the king to the words of his servant
And now, my lord the king, please listen to my, your servant's, words.
Joüon & Muraoka (2006: A Grammar of Biblical Hebrew. Rome: Gregorian & Biblical Press) state plainly (§114eN):
The we of majesty does not exist in Hebrew.
Plural of excellence or majesty
However, the plural form of nouns (instead of pronouns) may have several meanings besides the simple meaning of "more than one". Joüon & Muraoka list a great number of nuances of the plural (§136):
Plural of extension: שָׁמַ֫יִם šāmayim (sky, heavens), because the heavens are composed of multiple parts
Plural of composition: דָּמִים dāmim (bloods > bloodshed)
Plural of intensity: בְּהֵמוֹת Bəhēmōṯ, for its greatness
Plural of abstraction: בַּטֻּחוֹת baṭṭuḥōṯ (security, from sure circumstances)
(The word מַ֫יִם mayim (water) which you mention can be explained as a plural of extension or composition.)
There is also the plural of excellence or majesty, which occurs in words like:
אֱלֹהִים 'ělōhim (non-Israelite gods or the Israelite God)
קְדֹשִים qəḏōšim (the Holy One: Proverbs 9:10; 30:3)
אֲדֹנִים 'ǎḏōnim (ordinarily lords or the Lord, especially in 'ǎḏōnāy my Lord)
It seems that this is, at least in poetry, not restricted to the deity: שֹׁלְחָיו šōləḥāw (he who has sent him: Proverbs 10:26); מְרִימָיו mərīmāw (he who lifts it: Isaiah 10:15).
Does Biblical Hebrew have a plural of majesty? I'm aware there's the word Elohim which can mean God or gods. But I don't think that's good evidence of plural of majesty because for example, you hav...
linguistics.stackexchange.com
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Pluralis Majestatis: Biblical
Hebrew
The term ‘majestic plural’ or pluralis majestatis refers to the use of a plural word to refer honorifically to a single person or entity. It is
also called the ‘plural of respect’, the ‘honorific plural’, the ‘plural of excellence’, or the ‘plural of intensity’. In the Hebrew Bible such plural
forms are most commonly used when referring to the God of Israel, .....
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The use of 'elohîm as divine beings definitely separate from Yahweh (e.g., Gen. 6, Ps. 82) proves conclusively that this divine pluralism is not just a grammatical one. Henotheism is seen in the fact that Yahweh is referred to as 'El 'elim (God of gods, Dan. 11:36) or in the use of the definite article ha 'elohîm (the God) for Yahweh, or b‘n‘ 'elohîm (the sons of God) for the other gods (Gen. 6:2; Job 1:6, 2:1, 38:7).With regard to these divine "sons," Cooke states: "These are not 'sons' of Yahweh in a filial sense...the 'sons of (the) God(s)' are those who are of the realm of the gods, who partake of divinity."17 Gensenius agrees that b‘n‘ 'elohîm "properly means not sons of god(s), but beings of the class of 'elohîm of 'elim...."18
Some Christian commentators have taken the ontological pluralism of 'elohîm as definite proof of the Trinity. Genesis 18, where three mysterious visitors come to Abraham, has been used to support this view.19 But rather than imposing a Christian view developed two millennia later on the Hebrews, the proper hermeneutic strategy would be to place it in the context of the religions of the ancient Near East.
HEBREW HENOTHEISM
Nicholas F. Gier, Professor Emeritus, University of Idaho (
[email protected])
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Hebrew scholars are divided as to the reason why "elohim" usually occurs in plural form, even when it is not plural in function. One theory is that it is equivalent to a "plural of majesty" (pluralis majestatis). Proponents of this theory believe the plural form magnifies the greatness of God, and is akin to the usage of the ancient kings who referred to their singular persons by the plural "we." It should be noted, however, that none of them also used a singular verb with that plural, i.e. they did not say "we is"--which is the Hebrew form. (A few of my Hebrew instructors have held this theory.)
A second common theory states that the word "elohim" itself is not originally a Hebrew word, but is a loanword from Syriac/Aramaic. Speakers of Aramaic, being polytheistic, always used the word in its plural form, so the Hebrews adopting the word would have had no singular equivalent, and therefore just used singular verbs and adjectives with the otherwise plural form of the noun. (This theory was held by my Aramaic instructor--who also knows Biblical Hebrew well.)
Genesis 1:26 is a special verse, being unique in using a plural verb with "elohim" when referencing the true God. Before assuming that this must refer to a plural "God," one must understand that "elohim" does not mean only "god" in Hebrew usage. It can apply to human judges (e.g. Exodus 22:8), and it can apply to angels, as it does in Psalm 8:5 (compare Hebrews 2:7 where this is quoted in Greek). So whomever the other individual(s) may be in Genesis 1:26, it is not at all clear that the verse establishes them on an equality with God. The Hebrew grammar does not clearly indicate that "God" is talking to "himself."
Conclusion
Because no one knows all of the exact reasons why Biblical Hebrew uses a word that appears plural in form to address God, it is important to be careful of making claims that are not fully supported. There is wide room for interpretation on this question if one looks strictly at the grammatical possibilities inherent to the original Hebrew.
In Genesis 1 God (Elohim) says "Let Us make man in Our image" Now Elohim (plural) is used throughout the Bible with verbs in the singular, so it can be seen as just a title of God roughly
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com
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