When Jesus Came out the Grave, he was Born Again.

[Johann]

Yes I understand this. "for sin", the used of "for" before sin tells us this is correct.

Except it's a different wording. So there's that. It doesn't use that same word. So I question the validity to do this. I don't see it myself.

There is a parallel passage, not exactly parallel, but I'm sure you will see what I mean, see below:

Colossians 2:12-14 KJV
12) Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.
13) And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;
14) Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;

This "handwriting", cheirographon, was what they called their promisory notes, a certificate of indebtedness. We see this in Philemon, as Paul writes, I will repay, see, I've written with my own hand. This was learned from studying the ancient papyrii.

When the debt was paid, the creditor would write "tetelestai", "it is finished", a phrase you'll likely recognize.

The debt we owed for our sin was nailed to the cross. "Behold the Lamb of God, who carries away the sin of the world".

1 Peter 2:24 KJV
Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.

He bore our sins in His body, this Lamb of God, that carried away the sin of the world, being nailed to the cross, our debt of sin.

I see this that all humanity's sin was put into Jesus' body, and He died with it all, taking it away.

Much love!

No-not "INTO"- Jesus body!

Transliteration: en
Morphology: Prep
Preposition
Strong's no.: G1722 (ἐν, ἐμμέσῳ, ἐννόμως)
Meaning: In, on, among.


Jesus did not became sin in a literal sense and that's all I'm going to say brother.

J.

 

[Johann]

View attachment 50519
"in the body of Him", I'll let the Scripture speak for itself.

Much love!

Which can be translated as ON the body of Jesus.

J.

 

[Johann]

Dear marks,
One more thought on Christ being made sin. Christ was a lamb without spot or blemish. He had no sin of His own but He did carry mankind's sin to the cross so that His death would purchase mankind's sin debt. Now mankind's owes our debt of death to Christ. If Christ was actually made sin, He would have spots and blemishes and His death would not have been acceptable.
Joe

Leave the brother @FaithWillDo and let him find out for himself that en is not always "in"-

And he is not fond of dictionaries.

J.

 

[Johann]

Except it's a different wording. So there's that. It doesn't use that same word. So I question the validity to do this. I don't see it myself.

The usual translations of this verse create insuperable difficulties doctrinally, for surely Jesus Christ can never be made sin, for He is God, and is perfectly holy. The order of the Greek, made clear in Bagster’s The Englishman’s Greek Testament by its interlinear translation, reads: "For him who knew not sin for us sin he made, that we might become righteousness of God in him." But this translation is incorrect. Dr. Malcolm Lavender properly translates: "Now the One not having experienced sin, He took sin in our behalf, in order that we might be made righteous by God, in Him." Dr. Lavender notes that the emphatic idea comes first: "Now the One not having experienced sin…." This phrase emphatically proclaims the impeccability of Christ: He not only did not sin, but he could not sin (+*Heb_4:15 note). Dr. Lavender rightly asserts, "Emphatically then, we do not have here a Christ made sin in any sense whatsoever—real, imputed, or mystical!" The rendering "made sin" translates εποιησεν, a form of poieō (S# G4160, Joh_5:29 note). Dr. Lavender notes, "The verb poieō should be translated ’took’ in this context, i.e., ’He (Christ) took sin….’ This translation preserves the Oneness of God, the Deity of Christ, His Immutability and innate Holiness, together with the utter necessity of a perfect and blameless Sacrifice in order to access Deity! Note further on poieō: Mark uses lambanō in the sense of to take a wife (Mar_12:19). In the NT, the Majority Text, poieō is used in [other] parallel passages in the Synoptic Gospels, in which it has the same meaning as lambanō, the regular word for ’take.’ In Mar_3:6, they ’were…taking (poieō) counsel…against’ Jesus. In Mat_12:14, they ’took (lambanō) counsel against Him,’ [thus lambanō is] a basic word for take. In Luk_6:11, they sought ’what they might do (poieō) to Jesus.’" Note further that Peter expressly states that Jesus "bare our sins in his own body on the tree," 1Pe_2:24, Thus Jesus took our sins, and bore our sins (Heb_9:28), but He was never made sin for us (see further the LNT, fn j). Compare Isa_53:4; Isa_53:6, See Exo_34:7 note by Young.

J.

 

[Ronald Nolette]

Dear Ronald Nolette,
You said:
The word sin there is "harmartia" which is never translated as sin offering. It means sin and sin only.

You are wrong. Here are two other places in the KJV that translate harmartia (G266) as sin offering:

Heb 10:6 In burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin (G266) thou hast had no pleasure.

Heb 10:8 Above when he said, Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and offering for sin (G266) thou wouldest not, neither hadst pleasure therein; which are offered by the law;

The Hebrew word for sin (H2401 hataa) used in the OT is commonly defined as "sin" or a "sin offering" just as the Greek Word harmartia can be defined as "sin" or "sin offering".

Also, there is NO second witness in scripture that says that Christ was made sin.

Two or three witnesses are required by the Law to prove anything to be true. In the case of Christ being made sin, there is no second witness. However, there are many second witnesses to the truth that Christ was made an offering for sin.

And as I pointed out in my first post, it is not possible for anyone (especially Christ who never sinned) to be made sin. It can be said that people are made to be sinful because they sin - but for a person to be made sin, it cannot happen.

If Christ were somehow made to be sin, how can His death on the cross forgive sins? Can sin forgive sins? Absolutely not!

The teaching that Christ was made sin is just another false teaching of the apostate church which cannot stand when held up to the light of God's Word.

Joe

If you look carefully at the Greek you will find in your two examples that the word sacrifice and offering are not in the original writings and have been added. There are Greek words for sacrifice and offering and they do not appear in the originals.

The Word sacrifice is "thysia" and offering is "prosphora" and they do not appear in any greek manuscript

 

[Ronald Nolette]

How could Jesus become sin, if he was God in the flesh?

He took our sin upon himself did he not?

Can you point me to scripture where Jesus became sin? thanks Ronald.

Here, Paul says that “God made him who had no sin to be sin for us so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.” Paul affirmed that Jesus had no sin of his own. Hebrews 4:15 expresses this as well, that Jesus, although tempted in every way that we are, was without sin.

2 Corinthians 5:20-21

King James Version

​

20 Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God.
21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

Is anything too difficult for God to do. If The Father willed the Son to be sin on the cross and punish our sin by making Jesus that sin- is He not free to do so?

 

[marks]

Remember, truth is taught "here a little, and there a little".

You might benefit from returning to that passage to see what the prophet was really saying. "You're all a bunch of drunks laying in your own vomit, bellyaching about how God speaks to you like little babies, line upon line, precept upon precept, and because you're all a bunch of big babies, that's how he's going to speak to you, line upon line, precept upon precept, it's going to make you fall on your you know what!"

Much love!

 

[marks]

Jesus did not became sin in a literal sense and that's all I'm going to say brother.

J.

I agree completely!

Much love!

 

[marks]

Which can be translated as ON the body of Jesus.

J.

The scapegoat.

Much love!

 

[Johann]

The scapegoat.

Much love!

"Aaron shall lay both his hands on the head of the live goat, confess over it all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and all their transgressions, concerning all their sins, putting them on the head of the goat, and shall send it away into the wilderness by the hand of a suitable man."

The phrase "lay both his hands" (Hebrew: "וְסָמַךְ" vesamach) implies the pressing or leaning of Aaron’s hands on the head of the scapegoat, symbolically transferring the sins of the people onto the goat before sending it into the wilderness.

This act of pressing hands onto the sacrificial animal is a common part of sacrificial rites in the Torah, emphasizing the identification with and transfer of sin from the people to the animal.

J.

 

[Johann]

2 Corinthians 5:20-21​

​

King James Version​

​

​

20 Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God.
21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

Is anything too difficult for God to do. If The Father willed the Son to be sin on the cross and punish our sin by making Jesus that sin- is He not free to do so?

You are familiar with Greek and you can't see that Jesus in no way, shape or form became hamartia in a LITERAL sense on the cross?

J.

 

[FaithWillDo]

No-not "INTO"- Jesus body!

Transliteration: en
Morphology: Prep
Preposition
Strong's no.: G1722 (ἐν, ἐμμέσῳ, ἐννόμως)
Meaning: In, on, among.

View attachment 50521
Jesus did not became sin in a literal sense and that's all I'm going to say brother.

J.

Dear Johann,
Thanks for making that clarification to marks.
Joe

 

[FaithWillDo]

If you look carefully at the Greek you will find in your two examples that the word sacrifice and offering are not in the original writings and have been added. There are Greek words for sacrifice and offering and they do not appear in the originals.

The Word sacrifice is "thysia" and offering is "prosphora" and they do not appear in any greek manuscript

Dear Ronald Nolette,
Yes, they words are not there just as it is not there in 2Cor 5:20 - however, it is implied. Look at the Hebrew word for sin. It is frequently translated as "sin offering", too, even though the word offering is not in the Hebrew.
Joe

 

[Johann]

If you look carefully at the Greek you will find in your two examples that the word sacrifice and offering are not in the original writings and have been added. There are Greek words for sacrifice and offering and they do not appear in the originals.

The Word sacrifice is "thysia" and offering is "prosphora" and they do not appear in any greek manuscript

Incorrect.
Examples from the New Testament:
Hebrews 10:5 (Greek text):

"Sacrifice" (θυσία, thysia) does indeed appear here:
Greek (NA28): "διό, εἰσερχόμενος εἰς τὸν κόσμον, λέγει· θυσίαν καὶ προσφορὰν οὐκ ἠθέλησας, σῶμα δὲ κατηρτίσω μοι·"
Translation (NKJV): "Therefore, when He came into the world, He said: 'Sacrifice and offering You did not desire, but a body You have prepared for Me.'"
Here, θυσία (sacrifice) and προσφορά (offering) are both present in the original Greek.
Hebrews 10:10 (Greek text):

"Offering" (προσφορά, prosphora) appears:
Greek (NA28): "ἐν ᾧ θελήματι ἡγιασμένοι ἐσμὲν διὰ τῆς προσφορᾶς τοῦ σώματος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐφάπαξ."
Translation (NKJV): "By that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all."
These terms, θυσία (thysia) and προσφορά (prosphora), are genuine Greek words that are indeed found in Greek manuscripts, particularly in Hebrews, and are not later additions.


Your claim that these words do not appear in Greek manuscripts is incorrect. Both terms are used explicitly in the Greek text of the New Testament, particularly in Hebrews, referring to Jesus' sacrifice and offering.

Ephesians 5:2
Greek: καὶ περιπατεῖτε ἐν ἀγάπῃ, καθὼς καὶ ὁ Χριστὸς ἠγάπησεν ἡμᾶς καὶ παρέδωκεν ἑαυτὸν ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν προσφορὰν καὶ θυσίαν τῷ Θεῷ εἰς ὀσμὴν εὐωδίας.
Translation (NKJV): "And walk in love, as Christ also has loved us and given Himself for us, an offering and a sacrifice to God for a sweet-smelling aroma."
In this verse, both προσφορά (prosphora) and θυσία (thysia) are used to describe Christ's offering of Himself.

2. Philippians 4:18
Greek: Πάντα δέχομαι καὶ περισσεύω· πεπλήρωμαι δεξάμενος παρὰ Ἐπαφροδίτου τὰ παρ' ὑμῶν, ὀσμὴν εὐωδίας, θυσίαν δεκτὴν, εὐάρεστον τῷ Θεῷ.
Translation (NKJV): "Indeed I have all and abound. I am full, having received from Epaphroditus the things sent from you, a sweet-smelling aroma, an acceptable sacrifice, well pleasing to God."
The term θυσία (thysia) here refers to the Philippians' financial support as a sacrifice offered to God.


3. Romans 12:1
Greek: Παρακαλῶ οὖν ὑμᾶς, ἀδελφοί, διὰ τῶν οἰκτιρμῶν τοῦ Θεοῦ, παραστῆσαι τὰ σώματα ὑμῶν θυσίαν ζῶσαν, ἁγίαν, εὐάρεστον τῷ Θεῷ, τὴν λογικὴν λατρείαν ὑμῶν·
Translation (NKJV): "I beseech you therefore, brethren, by the mercies of God, that you present your bodies a living sacrifice, holy, acceptable to God, which is your reasonable service."
θυσία (thysia) here refers to the sacrifice of one's own life to God's service.


4. Hebrews 9:26
Greek: ἐπεὶ ἔδει αὐτὸν πολλάκις παθεῖν ἀπὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου· νυνὶ δὲ ἅπαξ ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων εἰς ἀθέτησιν τῆς ἁμαρτίας διὰ τῆς θυσίας αὐτοῦ πεφανέρωται.
Translation (NKJV): "He then would have had to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now, once at the end of the ages, He has appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself."
θυσία (thysia) is used again, referring to Jesus' sacrifice for the removal of sin.


5. Hebrews 9:14
Greek: πόσῳ μᾶλλον τὸ αἷμα τοῦ Χριστοῦ, ὃς διὰ πνεύματος αἰωνίου ἑαυτὸν προσήνεγκεν ἄμωμον τῷ Θεῷ, καθαριεῖ τὴν συνείδησιν ὑμῶν ἀπὸ νεκρῶν ἔργων εἰς τὸ λατρεύειν Θεῷ ζῶντι.
Translation (NKJV): "How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered Himself without spot to God, cleanse your conscience from dead works to serve the living God?"
Here, προσφορά (prosphora) is implied in offered Himself as Christ’s offering.


Summary of Key Words:
θυσία (thysia): Appears in multiple New Testament contexts related to sacrifice, both in terms of Christ’s sacrifice and the spiritual sacrifices of believers.
προσφορά (prosphora): Used to denote offering, including Christ’s offering of Himself.
These words are well-attested in the Greek manuscripts of the New Testament, and contrary to your initial claim, they are not later additions but part of the original texts.

J.

 

[Johann]

Dear Johann,
Thanks for making that clarification to marks.
Joe

No problem Joe.

God bless and shalom to you and dear family.

J.

 

[marks]

No problem Joe.

God bless and shalom to you and dear family.

J.

Johann, do you think 2 Cor 5 should then read, "He made Him who knew no sin to be a sin offering"?

Much love!

 

[Johann]

Johann, do you think 2 Cor 5 should then read, "He made Him who knew no sin to be a sin offering"?

Much love!

2Co 5:21 For the one not knowing sin, [for us a sin offering he made], that we should be righteousness of God by him.
ABP


2Co 5:21 The one who in his person had no da'as of chattat (sin) [Ac 3:14; Yn 8:46; MJ 4:15; 7:26; 1K 2:22; 1Y 3:5], this one Hashem made a chattat sin offering [Ga 3:13; YESHAYAH 53:10; VAYIKRA 4:24 TARGUM HASHIVIM] on our behalf that we might become the Tzidkat Hashem [DANIEL 9:24] in Moshiach. [1C 1:30; Pp 3:9] [T.N. In this next chapter Rav Sha’ul warns against associations or worldly influences or fascinations that will contaminate the believer, who should not think he can have both the world’s evil pleasures and the House of G-d’s holy chelek.]
OJB--------------------simply LOVE this Bible available for free on E-Sword! And no negative reviews.
All you have to do is arm yourself with a dictionary and LOOK up chattat!

2Co 5:21 He made Him who personally knew nothing of sin to be a sin-offering for us, so that through union with Him we might come into right standing with God.
Williams.

Vincent
Made to be sin (ἁμαρτίαν ἐποίησεν)
Compare a curse, Gal_3:13. Not a sin-offering, nor a sinner, but the representative of sin. On Him, representatively, fell the collective consequence of sin, in His enduring “the contradiction of sinners against Himself” (Heb_12:3), in His agony in the garden, and in His death on the cross.

sin. App-128. Only here and 2Co_11:7, in this Epistle. The first occurance in this verse is by Figure of speech Metonymy (App-6) put for sin-offering. Compare Eph_5:2. The same Figure of speech appears in the same connexion in Gen_4:7. Exo_29:14; Exo_30:10. Lev_4:3; Lev_6:25. Num_8:8. Psa_40:6 (7); &c.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Marks I have no problem with sin offering or representative of sin. Do a word study on Chattat and the various offerings, sin offering, Guilt offerings-Wave offerings etc.

Please feel free to ask questions, if I don't know I will look it up and together we will learn, study and make the Scripture Imperatives applicable in our lives with the help of the Holy Spirit.

If you are interested, you can look up what the ECF's wrote about these two verses---just a thought. But they are not my source of authority!

You are going to have to look at dictionaries and Lexicons brother and one, maybe two exegetical commentaries that can help shed light on obscure verses-we are to STUDY--
to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

Shalom.
J.

 

[FaithWillDo]

You might benefit from returning to that passage to see what the prophet was really saying. "You're all a bunch of drunks laying in your own vomit, bellyaching about how God speaks to you like little babies, line upon line, precept upon precept, and because you're all a bunch of big babies, that's how he's going to speak to you, line upon line, precept upon precept, it's going to make you fall on your you know what!"

Much love!

Dear marks,
I use that passage in Isa 28:9-12 quite often. It is a teaching on how the church became apostate shortly after Paul's death (Acts 20:29-31).

Here is the passage in the KJV with my comments in blue:

Isa 28:9 Whom shall he teach knowledge? and whom shall he make to understand doctrine? them that are weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts (the converted Elect). 10 For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little: 11 For with stammering lips and another language (spiritual language) will he speak to this people. 12 But the word of the LORD was unto them precept upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little; that they (unconverted believers/babes) might go, and fall backward, and be broken, and snared, and taken (by Satan).

To convert a person, Christ must give them the Early and Latter Rains of the Spirit, followed by judgment (the Day of the Lord).

After Christ gives an unbeliever the Early Rain of the Spirit, they will have a measure of faith and certain spiritual gifts. This will cause them to make a confession of faith when they are presented the Gospel. However, as a new "babe", they will remain carnally minded, spiritually blind and unconverted. In this condition, they are unable to receive and understand a complete and full knowledge of Christ's New Covenant teachings. They can "see" a little but not enough to avoid falling prey to Satan's deceptions via the spirit of anti-Christ.

Mark 8:15-25 applies. This truth was also "typed" by Paul's conversion experience.

Christ also taught this truth in the passage below:

Mat 12:43 When the unclean spirit is gone out of a man, he walketh through dry places, seeking rest, and findeth none. 44 Then he saith, I will return into my house from whence I came out; and when he is come, he findeth it empty, swept, and garnished. 45 Then goeth he, and taketh with himself SEVEN other spirits more wicked than himself, and they enter in and dwell there: and the last state of that man is worse than the first. Even so shall it be also unto this wicked generation.

The spiritual symbol of an unclean spirit represents a spirit which teaches Satan's false truth through lies and deceptions.

Since a new believer remains spiritually blind after receiving the Early Rain of the Spirit, they cannot replace their worldly false beliefs with the truth of Christ. ONE unclean spirit leaves but comes back with SEVEN more. The number "seven" represents perfection. In this case, the number seven represents the perfection of Satan's lies/deceptions which come to a believer by the indwelling of the spirit of anti-Christ. Now, instead of ONE unclean spirit within the believer, they now have EIGHT. The number eight is a spiritual symbol which represents a new spiritual condition. In this case, the new spiritual condition is worse than the first.

This "worse than the first" spiritual condition causes the believer to become a False Prophet, a Man of Sin, a Minister of Satan and a Seven Headed Beast with Ten Horns & Crowns.

Here is a little more background information:

The New Covenant is spiritual and it is taught in Christ's spiritual language using Christ's "spirit" words (John 6:63). Its truths are taught "precept upon precept, line upon line and here a little, and there a little" so that an unconverted believer (a babe) will not be able to fully understand the truth of Christ's New Covenant teachings. Because the "babe" will not be able to understand, Satan will easily deceive them and cause them to "fall backward, be broken, snared and taken". In other words, the believer will become apostate and has no ability to avoid it happening. However, an unconverted believer will still be able to understand the work that Christ did under the Old Covenant which led Him to the cross (Christ and Him crucified, 1Cor 2:2). This is true because the Old Covenant was written for carnal mankind to understand. Its teachings are physical and outward and are based upon the works of man. In contrast, the New Covenant is written for the spiritual man (the converted Elect) to understand. Its teachings are spiritual and apply "within" a person. The works of the New Covenant are 100% the works of Christ. Mankind contributes no works toward their own salvation. For this reason, Paul made this statement:

Eph 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: 9 Not of works, lest any man should boast. 10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them.

When Christ is ready to save a person, He will come to them without their asking or permission and perform His spiritual works within them. To begin the spiritual process, Christ will give them the Early Rain of the Spirit. But because the unconverted believer will remain carnally minded and spiritually blind, they will fall away and become apostate (a man of sin). For the Elect, Christ will "come again" to them and pour out the Latter Rain of the Spirit. With the baptism of the Holy Spirit, the believer will be restored and their spiritual blindness will be healed. It is at this point that the believer will "see" the Abomination of Desolation (Mat 24:15) that previously occurred when the spirit of anti-Christ entered them.

This verse applies:

1Sam 12:17 Is it not wheat harvest to day? (day of salvation for the Elect/First Fruits) I will call unto the LORD, and he shall send thunder (voice of Christ) and RAIN (the Latter Rain); that ye may perceive and see that your wickedness is great (have become a man of sin), which ye have done in the sight of the LORD, in asking you a king.

After the man of sin is revealed to the Elect believer, judgment will fall on them and remove the spirit of anti-Christ and the Great Harlot (represents their carnal spiritual nature made worse by Satan) and cast them both into the Lake of Fire for destruction. Mat 24:37-41 and Rev 19:11-21 describe this judgment. After Christ's judgment is complete, the believer will be converted and will finally be able to walk by the Spirit and by faith. Christ will then spiritually mature them to be a spiritual man of "full age" (Heb 5:14).

Joe

 

[marks]

I use that passage in Isa 28:9-12 quite often. It is a teaching on how the church became apostate shortly after Paul's death (Acts 20:29-31).

I disagree. I believe it applies as the prophet gave it, without substituting one audience for another.

When Christ is ready to save a person, He will come to them without their asking or permission and perform His spiritual works within them. To begin the spiritual process, Christ will give them the Early Rain of the Spirit. But because the unconverted believer will remain carnally minded and spiritually blind, they will fall away and become apostate (a man of sin). For the Elect, Christ will "come again" to them and pour out the Latter Rain of the Spirit. With the baptism of the Holy Spirit, the believer will be restored and their spiritual blindness will be healed. It is at this point that the believer will "see" the Abomination of Desolation (Mat 24:15) that previously occurred when the spirit of anti-Christ entered them.

I've known a number of people who have thought in similar ways as this, and have had occassion to explore these ideas. Not saying yours are exactly like theirs, no two are fully alike. Actually that's part of the problem. I believe the Bible to be a more straightfoward kind of communication than this.

Much love!

 

[face2face]

How so? I don't see that, and I think @bro.tan is not right. Some think rebirth comes at the end of one's life if one has sufficiently pleased God by Lawkeeping, no, I fully disagree with that. Salvation as a reward for works is flatly refuted in Scripture.

But you said, 'related', that can mean anything you want it to.

So . . . Related in what way?


Better to ask Paul, or better yet God, why He inspired the words He inspired. The big question is, will you accept what He said, will you believe it? This one takes some study, but most importantly, a willingness to just stay with what is written.

Much love!

When the truth is fully known to you Marks it will shift you off a creed foundation and place you firmly on Christ and his Apostles.

I know why he used the word Sin but one must be teachable to understand all that God did in Christ in reconciling the World to Himself.

F2f