In modern English it would say: And joseph did not have sex with Mary until after Jesus was born.
1 : to
2 → used as a function word to indicate continuance (as of an action or condition) to a
specified time stayed until morning, e.g., stayed
until morning
3 : before sense 2, e.g., not available
until tomorrow; we don't open
until ten
: up to the time that
: up to such time as, e.g., play continued
until it got dark;
never able to relax
until he took up fishing; ran
until she was breathless
You claim that Scripture states in Matt. 1:25 that Joseph and Mary didn't have intercourse
until after Mary gave birth to Jesus, but it doesn't; rather, it states they didn't have intercourse "
until she brought forth her firstborn son." The word "
until" has multiple definitions, not only the one you're inferring by your
insertion of the word "
after."
For the sake of argument, say the word "
until" was used to mean Joseph and Mary had intercourse after Jesus's birth, that in itself wouldn't prove Mary bore more children because, for example, having vaginal intercourse doesn't lead to procreation for some men and women. Your interpretation that the gospel writer, after writing about the long-anticipated messianic prophecy coming to fruition, basically threw in the tidbit, "After the birth of the Savior, Joseph had intercourse with Mary and 6+ more kids," at the end is quite random.
It also isn't in line with the context of Matt. 1:20-25, which is Joseph's accepting as his spouse
the virgin who conceived
the Savior of mankind by
the Holy Spirit. The gospel writer concludes the passage by stating that Joseph didn't have intercourse with Mary until Jesus's birth,
to dispel any belief that he was the father. In other words, since the gospel writer's intent at the end was to show what Joseph
didn't do until a certain point, so as to dispel any belief that Jesus was conceived by him, and not begotten by the Holy Spirit, they stated he remained chaste until Jesus's birth. Why would implying Joseph had intercourse with Mary post-birth of Jesus be relevant, when it's only about Jesus's paternal origin? It's not relevant, which is why the definition of "
until" that you're using doesn't fit here, but rather "up to the time that," because it informs us what Joseph
didn't do until a certain point, not what occurred after that point.
Yes they do and you are ignoring the context in which this was spoken. It was the skeptics speaking. There was a crowd. So it would not mean fellow country men- for then they would have meant the whole crowd of Jews!
I said "fellow countrymen" is one of the definitions of the word "
brother," and that the context in Matt. 13:55/Mk. 6:3 shows Joseph, Simon, James, and Judas (Jude/Thaddeus) in Matt. 13:55/Mk. 6:3 were Jesus's brothers, as in kinsmen, e.g., sibling, cousin, nephew, uncle, etc. In the opening post, early Christian testimonies, supported by Scripture, confirms they were Jesus's kinsmen and the sons of Jesus's mother's spouse's brother, and thus specifically His cousins. Read more carefully please.
Sorry but only in rare cases is cousin the intended meaning, especially not here. There were sufficient greek words to designate them as cousins.
Firstly, there isn't a word for "uncle," nephew," "cousin," etc., for example, in the Aramaic and Hebrew languages, and thus the OT authors (not the Septuagint translators) used a circumlocution or a word that means "kinsman," such as "
אָח" ('âch) in the following cases:
אָח ('âch; plural 'âchiem)
Definition
Brown-Driver-Briggs
1) brother
1a) brother of same parents
1b) half-brother (same father)
1c) relative, kinship, same tribe
1d) each to the other (reciprocal relationship)
1e) (figuratively) of resemblance
אָח ('âch; plural 'âchiem)
Definition
Strong
A primitive word; a brother (used in the widest sense of literal relationship and metaphorical affinity or resemblance (like H1)): - another, brother (-ly), kindred, like, other. Compare also the proper names beginning with «Ah-» or «Ahi-».
Greek Equivalent Words:
Strong #: 80 ‑ ἀδελφός (ad‑el‑fos')...
"ויאמר אברם אל-לוט אל-נא תהי מריבה ביני ובינך ובין רעי ובין רעיך כי-אנשים
אחים אנחנו." (Gen. 13:8)
"וישמע אברם כי נשבה אחיו וירק
את-חניכיו ילידי ביתו שמנה עשר ושלש מאות וירדף עד-דן." (Gen 14:14)
"ויאמר לבן ליעקב הכי-
אחי אתה ועבדתני חנם הגידה לי מה-משכרתך." (Gen. 29:15)
"וימת אלעזר ולא-היו לו בנים כי אם-בנות וישאום בני-קיש
אחיהם." (1 Chr. 23:22)
ἀδελφός (adelphos; plural adelphoi)
Definitions
Liddell-Scott-Jones
2. kinsman, ib.Ge.13.8, al.;...
ἀδελφός (adelphos; plural adelphoi)
Definitions
Mounce
...near kinsman, or relative;
The Septuagint translators substituted the Hebrew words "
אחים" ('âchiem) in Gen. 13:8 with "
ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) and "
אָח" ('âch) in Gen 14:14 with "
ἀδελφός" (adelphos) to describe
kinship between Abraham and Lot which lineage shows were that of
uncle and
nephew: εἶπεν δὲ Αβραμ τῷ Λωτ Μὴ ἔστω μάχη ἀνὰ μέσον ἐμοῦ καὶ σοῦ καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τῶν ποιμένων μου καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τῶν ποιμένων σου. ὅτι ἄνθρωποι
ἀδελφοὶ ἡμεῖς ἐσμεν. (Gen. 13:8) and ἀκούσας δὲ Αβραμ ὅτι ᾐχμαλώτευται Λωτ ὁ
ἀδελφὸς αὐτοῦ, ἠρίθμησεν τοὺς ἰδίους οἰκογενεῖς αὐτοῦ, τριακοσίους δέκα καὶ ὀκτώ, καὶ κατεδίωξεν ὀπίσω αὐτῶν ἕως Δαν. (Gen. 14:14)
The Septuagint translators substituted the Hebrew word "
אָח" ('âch) in Gen. 29:15 with "
ἀδελφός" (adelphos) to describe
kinship between Jacob and Laban which lineage shows were that of
uncle and
nephew: "Εἶπε δὲ Λάβαν τῷ ᾿Ιακώβ· ὅτι γὰρ
ἀδελφός μου εἶ, οὐ δουλεύσεις μοι δωρεάν· ἀπάγγειλόν μοι, τίς ὁ μισθός σου ἐστί;" (Gen. 29:15
The Septuagint translators substituted the Hebrew word "
אחים" ('âchiem) in 1 Chr. 23:21–22 with "
ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) to describe it was
kin the daughters of Eleazar married which lineage shows was their
cousins: "καὶ ἀπέθανεν Ελεαζαρ, καὶ οὐκ ἦσαν αὐτῷ υἱοὶ ἀλλ᾽ ἢ θυγατέρες, καὶ ἔλαβον αὐτὰς υἱοὶ Κις
ἀδελφοὶ αὐτῶν." (1 Chr. 23:22)
Secondly, considering Plato [
c. 429?–347 BCE) used the word "
συγγενής" (syngenes) and Aeschylus (
c. 525–456 BCE) used the word "
θεῖος" (theîos), we know that the translators of the Septuagint should've been well aware of these words at the time.
Thirdly, a Lexicon shouldn't be considered just a Lexicon of the NT. It should be a Lexicon of the language itself as spoken by all of the people who used it. In other words, a complete vocabulary.
Fourthly, uncle, nephew, and cousin, etc., are encompassed under "kinsman," a definition of the word "
ἀδελφός" (adelphos) in the following Koine Greek Lexicons:
ἀδελφός (adelphos; plural adelphoi)
Definitions
Liddell-Scott-Jones
2. kinsman, ib.Ge.13.8, al.;...
ἀδελφός (adelphos; plural adelphoi)
Definitions
Mounce
...near kinsman, or relative;
The reason "kinsman" is a definition of the words "
ἀδελφός" (adelphos) and "
ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) is because they were used to describe a kinsman, e.g., uncle, nephew, cousin, etc., in Gen. 13:8;14:14;29:15, 1 Chr. 23:22, etc. For this reason, any Lexicons that don't include this definition are in error.
Word definitions aren't as "strict" as you think they are, and the same language can be used differently by different cultures, and every word can have a range of meanings beyond its most literal definition. Otherwise, slang wouldn't exist. And this isn't a modern thing.
Lastly, you can't deny "kinsman" was a definition of the word "
ἀδελφός" (adelphos) during the writing of the Septuagint.
Your homework:
(i) Show when "kinsman," e.g., sibling, cousin, uncle, etc., was abandoned as a definition of the word "
ἀδελφός" (adelphos) post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.
(ii) Explain why there are Lexicons, e.g., Lidell-Scott-Jones, Mounce, etc., that include the definition "kinsman" for the word "
ἀδελφός" (adelphos) if it was abandoned post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.
