Were Jesus's brothers born of another woman?

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Verily

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When you look at the types and shadows and fulfillments in Scripoture, it’s easier to understand Mary’s role.

Mary is the Ark of the New Covenant.
The Ark carried the sacred sumbols of God's power and Law.
Mary, the New Ark carried God Himself. And, whereas, the Ark was to remain untouched by man, lest they defile it.

The following verses illustrate Biblical reality:
OT - The Word was written by God on Tablets of Stone (Ex. 25:10) placed inside the Ark (Deut. 10:1)

NT - The Word of God became Flesh (John 1) conceived inside Mary (Luke 2:38) Mary carried the Word of God.

OT - "Who am I that the Ark of my Lord should come to me?" (2 Sam. 6:9)
NT - "Who am I that the mother of my Lord should come to me?" (Luke 1:43)

OT - The When the Ark carrying the Word of God returned “David was leaping and dancing before the Lord” (2 Sam. 6:14)
NT - When Mary came into Elizabeth's presence carrying the word of God, the baby “leaped for joy” in Elizabeth's womb (Luke 2:38)

OT - The Ark carrying the Word of God is brought to the house of Obed-Edom for 3 months, where it was a blessing. (2 Sam. 6:11)
NT - Mary (the new Ark) carrying the Word of God goes to Elizabeth's house for 3 months, where she is a blessing (Luke 1:56)

OT - The Ark is captured (1 Sam 4:11) and brought to a foreign land and later returns (1 Sam 6:13)
NT - Mary (the new Ark) is exiled to a foreign land (Egypt) and later returns (Matt. 2:14)

OT - On the Day of the Dedication of the Temple which Solomon built, there were 120 priests present (2 Chron. 5:11). The Ark of the covenant was carried into the Temple (2 Chron. 5:7) and fire came down from Heaven to consume the burnt offering (2 Chron. 7:7).
NT - The On the Day of Pentecost, there were 120 disciples of Jesus present in the Upper Room (Acts 1:15). Mary, the Mother of Jesus and the Ark of the NEW Covenant was also present while the Holy Spirit came down as tongues of fire (Acts 2:3).

I do prefer to look at types and shadows myself and although I might disagree that these things prove anything substantially in relation to Mary being the Ark I think you do a much better job of showing where your side of things has come to this understanding. Well, above many on the forums where there is alot of back and forth on it and I commend you for using the scriptures to do so. I actually appreciate that.

As much as a couple of the churches out there make of her there is just little to nothing in the NT on her. The last time Mary is even mentioned by name is the day of Pentecost, and not firstly but lastly (Acts 14:1) However, if we would insist that the ark represented her (who carried the word of God) she only did so for 9 months, and was certainly not carrying him in the upper room at that time (nor had she been for over 33 years). The presence of God filled that place while Mary herself sat among them, and that had nothing to do with her as the ark of His presense. She carried Jesus who was made flesh in her flesh for 9 months only. And right there (at pentecost) 33 after she gave birth to Jesus it would come to pass that God would pour out His Spirit on all flesh. How does that work? How is she even an Ark at this point in time. Not denying she carried Christ, who is the Word made flesh, but that was before Jesus was "born into" the world (and who was outside of her for 33 years) and now he has gone to the cross (and so not even in this world any longer).

Jesus had every opportunity to elevate his mother to some sort of special goddess like position like when someone specifically told him that his natural mother and brethren who were standing without call for him, (even before he went to the cross) he answered them, saying, Who is my mother, or my brethren? And he looked round about on them which sat about him, and said, Behold my mother and my brethren! For whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my brother, and my sister,and mother Mark 3:32-35.
The only place in the epistles she is referenced again (and not by name) is in Gal 4:4-5 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law. To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons. That's it outside of the book of revelation where the back story of the woman bringing forth a child with the moon under her feet who a couple paragraphs down takes off into the wilderness and the picture of the ark in heaven (as we are familar with those).

Theres just nothing on her, the epistles are silent , even 1 Cr 15:1 excludes the mention of his birth and emphasizes the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ, not his birth there where he could have said something substantial pertaining to these things. Paul emphasized Jesus death and resurrection, and nothing concerning Mary being this Ark.

I will say that you have done a better job of trying to show these things as you see them set forth in the scripture to show how you come to that conclusion and believe as you do than most though. Although I still don't get how the eternal presense of God equates to an ever virgin forever, when even the Ark is to be forgotten.

Jerm 3:16 And it shall come to pass, when ye be multiplied and increased in the land, in those days, saith the LORD, they shall say no more, The ark of the covenant of the LORD: neither shall it come to mind: neither shall they remember it; neither shall they visit it; neither shall that be done any more.

Hebrews mentions it here this way

Heb 9:5 And over it the cherubims of glory shadowing the mercyseat; of which we cannot now speak particularly.
 

RedFan

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Luke, the investigative journalist (Luke 1:3), was fully aware of the OT writings, and thus able to analogize Mary to the Ark in various ways. But his analogies are not based on first hand accounts, particularly those recounted in his first two chapters. Who could he have interviewed to retrieve, say, what Elizabeth said to Mary (1:43) or how long Mary stayed with her (1:56) or whether her baby leapt for joy in her womb (2:38)?
 

BreadOfLife

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I do prefer to look at types and shadows myself and although I might disagree that these things prove anything substantially in relation to Mary being the Ark I think you do a much better job of showing where your side of things has come to this understanding. Well, above many on the forums where there is alot of back and forth on it and I commend you for using the scriptures to do so. I actually appreciate that.

As much as a couple of the churches out there make of her there is just little to nothing in the NT on her. The last time Mary is even mentioned by name is the day of Pentecost, and not firstly but lastly (Acts 14:1) However, if we would insist that the ark represented her (who carried the word of God) she only did so for 9 months, and was certainly not carrying him in the upper room at that time (nor had she been for over 33 years). The presence of God filled that place while Mary herself sat among them, and that had nothing to do with her as the ark of His presense. She carried Jesus who was made flesh in her flesh for 9 months only. And right there (at pentecost) 33 after she gave birth to Jesus it would come to pass that God would pour out His Spirit on all flesh. How does that work? How is she even an Ark at this point in time. Not denying she carried Christ, who is the Word made flesh, but that was before Jesus was "born into" the world (and who was outside of her for 33 years) and now he has gone to the cross (and so not even in this world any longer).

Jesus had every opportunity to elevate his mother to some sort of special goddess like position like when someone specifically told him that his natural mother and brethren who were standing without call for him, (even before he went to the cross) he answered them, saying, Who is my mother, or my brethren? And he looked round about on them which sat about him, and said, Behold my mother and my brethren! For whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my brother, and my sister,and mother Mark 3:32-35.
First of all – we don’t elevate Mary to a “goddess” position. There is only ONE God (Exod:20-3). But, make no mistake – Jesus DID elevate His Mother.

Mark 3:35

For whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my brother, and my sister, and mother.


Above all – Mary’s willingness to do God’s will – even at the risk of putting herself in danger is what Jesus is talking about.
Being pregnant and unmarried could have led to her being stoned to death.

As for the “natural” siblings of Jesus – there is NO evidence that He had any.
All of the Scriptural evidence points to relatives – not uterine siblings.

The only place in the epistles she is referenced again (and not by name) is in Gal 4:4-5 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law. To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons. That's it outside of the book of revelation where the back story of the woman bringing forth a child with the moon under her feet who a couple paragraphs down takes off into the wilderness and the picture of the ark in heaven (as we are familar with those).

Theres just nothing on her, the epistles are silent , even 1 Cr 15:1 excludes the mention of his birth and emphasizes the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ, not his birth there where he could have said something substantial pertaining to these things. Paul emphasized Jesus death and resurrection, and nothing concerning Mary being this Ark.

I will say that you have done a better job of trying to show these things as you see them set forth in the scripture to show how you come to that conclusion and believe as you do than most though. Although I still don't get how the eternal presense of God equates to an ever virgin forever, when even the Ark is to be forgotten.

Jerm 3:16 And it shall come to pass, when ye be multiplied and increased in the land, in those days, saith the LORD, they shall say no more, The ark of the covenant of the LORD: neither shall it come to mind: neither shall they remember it; neither shall they visit it; neither shall that be done any more.

Hebrews mentions it here this way

Heb 9:5 And over it the cherubims of glory shadowing the mercyseat; of which we cannot now speak particularly.
First of all – just as YOUR mother will always be the Arl that carried you into this world – Mary will always be the Ark that carried Jesus, who is God.

Jesus never refers to His mother as “Mother.” He calls her “Woman.” WHY is that? Where else do we see this “Woman”?
In Gen 3:15, God tells the Serpent:
Gen 3:15

And I will put enmity
between you and the
WOMAN,
and between your offspring and hers;
he will crush your head,
and you will strike his heel.”


We see this taking place on Calvary – and the Woman is standing right there.

And, as you brought up – we see her in Rev. 12. The story actually starts in Rev. 11:19 and continues through Rev. 12. We see the New Ark of the Covenant in Heaven being spoken of at the very end of Chapter 11, verse 19:
Then God's temple in heaven was opened, and the ark of his covenant could be seen in the temple. There were flashes of lightning, rumblings, and peals of thunder, an earthquake, and a violent hailstorm.

The very next verse is in Chapter 12 (Rev 12:1):
A great sign appeared in the sky, a WOMAN clothed with the sun, with the moon under her feet, and on her head a crown of twelve stars.

Verse 2
says:
She was with child and wailed aloud in pain as she labored to give birth.

We know that this child is Jesus because in verse 4, we read:
She gave birth to a son, a male child, destined to rule all the nations with an iron rod.

Whereas, this is a polyvalent prophecy that more than one meaning - there is simply NO getting around the fact that the Woman here in Rev. 12 is Mary.
 

BreadOfLife

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Luke, the investigative journalist (Luke 1:3), was fully aware of the OT writings, and thus able to analogize Mary to the Ark in various ways. But his analogies are not based on first hand accounts, particularly those recounted in his first two chapters. Who could he have interviewed to retrieve, say, what Elizabeth said to Mary (1:43) or how long Mary stayed with her (1:56) or whether her baby leapt for joy in her womb (2:38)?
He could have interviewed both Mary and Elizabeth.

And, in case you forgot, the Holy Spirit – not Luke is the author of Luke’s Gospel.
I trust it is 100% truth because ALL Scripture is breathed out by GOD (2 Tim. 3:16).
 

BreadOfLife

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Is this why you worship (sorry, why you "venerate") Mary?
Didn't you make a note of it earlier when I said that we don't worship her?

Is this ehy you ask such stupid (sorry, "silly") questions?
 

Verily

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BreadOfLife, I still disagree with the ark. The disciples were also compared to a woman in John 16:21 and when speaking of Genesis between the man and the woman there Paul writes

Ephes 5:32 This is a great mystery: but I speak concerning Christ and the church (not of Mary specifically)

Even though I have seen depictions of Mary with a serpent under her singular foot that too is spoken of here

Romans 16:20 And the God of peace shall bruise Satan under your feet shortly. (not has bruised Satan under Mary's foot already).

Just things like that. That woman who starts loudly blessing Mary's "paps and womb" (or that which pertains to a womans motherhood, and especially how these pertained to the birth of Christ) seems to me to be a prophetic picture of a church that would get little hung up on Mary's motherhood and begin worshipping the creature above the Creator. In everyway that relates to Jesus Christ.

" Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked."

He moves from the one to the many

Luke 11:28 But he said, Yea rather, blessed ARE THEY that hear the word of God, and keep it.

He did the same when someone pointed out his mother and brethren according to the flesh and moves it from these to all his disciples seated around him as equally.
 
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RedFan

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Didn't you make a note of it earlier when I said that we don't worship her?

Is this ehy you ask such stupid (sorry, "silly") questions?
Yes, I made a note. The veneration you give Mary is virtually indistinguishable from worship. You bestow honor and glory on her that should be reserved for God.

The Catholic Eucharistic rite includes this doxology: “Through Him, with Him and in Him, in the unity of the Holy Spirit, all glory and honor is yours, almighty Father, for ever and ever.” This notion of “all glory and honor” belonging to God is a misnomer, because any Catholic will tell you that Mary is due honor and glory as well. Yet the doxology remains unchanged. Is it time for you to start a petition to change it? Maybe “Through Him, with Him and in Him, in the unity of the Holy Spirit, almost all glory and honor is yours, almighty Father, for ever and ever – but with a healthy dose for Mary as well.”
 

Verily

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The gospel we are save by according to Paul excludes any mention of Jesus birth

1Cr 15:1 Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;

1Cr 15:2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.

1Cr 15:3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;

1Cr 15:4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures

Notice that? Paul did not start with his birth but bypasses any mention of his birth in the above
 

Verily

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These are pretty cool, trying to arrange these better

References back to Genesis

2Cr 11:2 For I am jealous over you with godly jealousy: for I have espoused you to one husband, that I may present you as a chaste virgin to Christ.

Makes a comparison

2Cr 11:3 But I fear, lest by any means, as the serpent beguiled Eve through his subtilty, so your minds should be corrupted from the simplicity that is in Christ.

References back to Genesis again

Ephes 5:31 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh.

Tells us a mystery

Ephes 5:32 This is a great mystery: but I speak concerning Christ and the church.

The bruising of the Serpent

Romans 16:20 And the God of peace shall bruise Satan under your feet shortly. (Not Mary's)

These travail with children until Christ is formed in them

Gal 4:19 My little children, of whom I travail in birth again until Christ be formed in you,

Who is the seed, even the word of God, and we are his body

1 Peter 1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.

Touching the enmity/ hatred

Genesis 3:15 And I will put enmity/hatred between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed

As John wrote,

1John 3:13 Marvel not, my brethren, if the world hate you.

Even as Jesus said,

John 15:8 If the world hate you, ye know that it hated me before it hated you.

Emnity, brusing, under your feet etc
 

RedFan

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The gospel we are save by according to Paul excludes any mention of Jesus birth

1Cr 15:1 Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;

1Cr 15:2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.

1Cr 15:3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;

1Cr 15:4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures

Notice that? Paul did not start with his birth but bypasses any mention of his birth in the above
The reason that the Cross rather than the Manger was Paul's focus is simple: he didn't think of Christ as God, so he had no reason to work out any Trinitarian or Binitarian theology.
 

Verily

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The reason that the Cross rather than the Manger was Paul's focus is simple: he didn't think of Christ as God, so he had no reason to work out any Trinitarian or Binitarian theology.
God created all things by Jesus Christ, He adresses the Son as God though.
 

RedFan

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God created all things by Jesus Christ, He adresses the Son as God though.
Agree that Jesus Christ was the instrument of creation. But the issue is, did Rabbi Paul think of Jesus as "God." My answer to that is "No." Happy to be educated otherwise if you care to point me to a verse.
 

Verily

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It could be because he openly declared the Son of God with power right here

Romans 1:4 And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead.
 

RedFan

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It could be because he openly declared the Son of God with power right here

Romans 1:4 And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead.
Let's separate "Son of God" from "God." The issue is, DID PAUL CONSIDER JESUS TO BE GOD? What's your answer to that?
 

RedFan

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It could be because he openly declared the Son of God with power right here

Romans 1:4 And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead.
I am not ready to go with "declared" here. Let’s look at Rom. 1:4 in the 1978 edition of the NIV:

"and who through the Spirit of holiness was declared (ὁρισθέντος) with power to be the Son of God by his resurrection from the dead: Jesus Christ our Lord"

The participle ὁρισθέντος is translated as “declared” here. Yet in none of its other seven appearances in the NT is the word so interpreted. Elsewhere its meaning is given as “installed,” “designated,” “established,” “ordained” or “appointed,” as in the closely related passage of Acts 10:42, as well as in Luke 22:22; in Acts 2:23, 11:29, 17:26, 17:31; and in Hebrews 4:7. The 2011 edition of the NIV has opted for consistency:

"and who through the Spirit of holiness was appointed (ὁρισθέντος) the Son of God in power by his resurrection from the dead: Jesus Christ our Lord"

When ὁρισθέντος is given this more natural meaning, Rom. 1:4 suggests that Christ was appointed the Son of God at his resurrection, as opposed to having already been the Son of God and simply having that existing status declared by the fact of his resurrection.

Any student of the fourth-century Arian heresy will immediately grasp the significance of this. Being “installed,” “designated,” “established,” “ordained” or “appointed” as Son of God suggests the action of another party – one gets installed, ordained or appointed to a position by someone else – whereas being “declared” Son of God by his resurrection need not imply any other actor at all; the resurrection itself, of its own force, could serve as the declaration. There is every reason to prefer the interpretation that preserves a role for a third party at the resurrection, for throughout the NT, Jesus is never referred to as having rose from the dead of his own power; he is always referred to as having been raised from the dead by the Father.

The orthodox Christian view, of course, is that Christ was always the Son of God, even before becoming incarnate. Translating Rom 1:4 to suggest adoptive sonship rather than preexisting sonship is more faithful to the Greek, but it is not as faithful to orthodox doctrine. In the 1978 NIV, doctrine won out.
 

Verily

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Agree that Jesus Christ was the instrument of creation. But the issue is, did Rabbi Paul think of Jesus as "God." My answer to that is "No." Happy to be educated otherwise if you care to point me to a verse.

Paul knew the scriptures and ofcourse he knew that Jesus was resurrected and ascended unto his God and Father

John 20:17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to MY GOD, and YOUR GOD.

And when Jesus is ascended, Psalam 45:6 (as shown in Hebrews)

Hebrews 1:8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.

His God and Father is speaking to Jesus Christ here (looking forward)) saying,

Psalm 45:6 Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the sceptre of thy kingdom is a right sceptre.

Psalm 45:7 Thou lovest righteousness, and hatest wickedness: therefore God, THY GOD, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.

To me, even though God the Father calls Jesus Christ God there (by whom he created all things) He (being His God) made Jesus Lord and Christ. So unto us there is ONE God, EVEN the Father and ONE Lord Jesus Christ. The testimony given us of the Father concerning Jesus is that he is Christ, the Son of the Living God.

Mat 16:15 He saith unto them, But whom say ye that I am?

Mat 16:16 And Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God.

Mat 16:17 And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.

Acts 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

Psalm 45:6-7 has to be acknowledged as well as Psalam 110:1 Which would be God to God, and LORD to Lord

Psalm 110:1 [[A Psalm of David.]] The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
 

Verily

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I am not ready to go with "declared" here. Let’s look at Rom. 1:4 in the 1978 edition of the NIV:

"and who through the Spirit of holiness was declared (ὁρισθέντος) with power to be the Son of God by his resurrection from the dead: Jesus Christ our Lord"

The participle ὁρισθέντος is translated as “declared” here. Yet in none of its other seven appearances in the NT is the word so interpreted. Elsewhere its meaning is given as “installed,” “designated,” “established,” “ordained” or “appointed,” as in the closely related passage of Acts 10:42, as well as in Luke 22:22; in Acts 2:23, 11:29, 17:26, 17:31; and in Hebrews 4:7. The 2011 edition of the NIV has opted for consistency:

"and who through the Spirit of holiness was appointed (ὁρισθέντος) the Son of God in power by his resurrection from the dead: Jesus Christ our Lord"

When ὁρισθέντος is given this more natural meaning, Rom. 1:4 suggests that Christ was appointed the Son of God at his resurrection, as opposed to having already been the Son of God and simply having that existing status declared by the fact of his resurrection.

Any student of the fourth-century Arian heresy will immediately grasp the significance of this. Being “installed,” “designated,” “established,” “ordained” or “appointed” as Son of God suggests the action of another party – one gets installed, ordained or appointed to a position by someone else – whereas being “declared” Son of God by his resurrection need not imply any other actor at all; the resurrection itself, of its own force, could serve as the declaration. There is every reason to prefer the interpretation that preserves a role for a third party at the resurrection, for throughout the NT, Jesus is never referred to as having rose from the dead of his own power; he is always referred to as having been raised from the dead by the Father.

The orthodox Christian view, of course, is that Christ was always the Son of God, even before becoming incarnate. Translating Rom 1:4 to suggest adoptive sonship rather than preexisting sonship is more faithful to the Greek, but it is not as faithful to orthodox doctrine. In the 1978 NIV, doctrine won out.
Without getting too technical, God fulfilling his word in this manner

Acts 13:33 God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, **this day** have I begotten thee.
 

Verily

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I am not ready to go with "declared" here. Let’s look at Rom. 1:4 in the 1978 edition of the NIV:

"and who through the Spirit of holiness was declared (ὁρισθέντος) with power to be the Son of God by his resurrection from the dead: Jesus Christ our Lord"

The participle ὁρισθέντος is translated as “declared” here. Yet in none of its other seven appearances in the NT is the word so interpreted. Elsewhere its meaning is given as “installed,” “designated,” “established,” “ordained” or “appointed,” as in the closely related passage of Acts 10:42, as well as in Luke 22:22; in Acts 2:23, 11:29, 17:26, 17:31; and in Hebrews 4:7. The 2011 edition of the NIV has opted for consistency:

"and who through the Spirit of holiness was appointed (ὁρισθέντος) the Son of God in power by his resurrection from the dead: Jesus Christ our Lord"

When ὁρισθέντος is given this more natural meaning, Rom. 1:4 suggests that Christ was appointed the Son of God at his resurrection, as opposed to having already been the Son of God and simply having that existing status declared by the fact of his resurrection.

Any student of the fourth-century Arian heresy will immediately grasp the significance of this. Being “installed,” “designated,” “established,” “ordained” or “appointed” as Son of God suggests the action of another party – one gets installed, ordained or appointed to a position by someone else – whereas being “declared” Son of God by his resurrection need not imply any other actor at all; the resurrection itself, of its own force, could serve as the declaration. There is every reason to prefer the interpretation that preserves a role for a third party at the resurrection, for throughout the NT, Jesus is never referred to as having rose from the dead of his own power; he is always referred to as having been raised from the dead by the Father.

The orthodox Christian view, of course, is that Christ was always the Son of God, even before becoming incarnate. Translating Rom 1:4 to suggest adoptive sonship rather than preexisting sonship is more faithful to the Greek, but it is not as faithful to orthodox doctrine. In the 1978 NIV, doctrine won out.

If you take the same theme you can wrap most of those words up together within the same picture pulled together showing the same things this way.

Hebrews 1:1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

Hebrews 1:2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath APPOINTED HEIR of all things, BY WHOM ALSO he made the worlds;

And so when its written here

Romans 1:4 And DECLARED TO BE the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, BY the resurrection FROM THE DEAD

Go back to the second psalm about THIS DAY

Psalm 2:7 I will DECLARE THE DECREE: the LORD hath said unto ME, Thou art my Son; THIS DAY have I begotten thee.

Psalm 2:8 Ask OF ME, and I shall GIVE THEE the heathen for THINE INHERITANCE, and the uttermost parts of the earth for thy possession.

And again, the second psalm is mentioned here speaking of the same thing, which needed to be fulfilled

Acts 13:33 God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, IN THAT he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, THIS DAY have I begotten thee.

First begotten of the dead, not only that but it says

Hebrews 5:5 So also Christ glorified NOT HIMSELF to be made an high priest; BUT HE that said unto him, Thou art my Son, to day have I begotten thee.

Hebrews 5:6 As HE SAITH ALSO in another place, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.

So you have, "declare the decree", the raising up/ resurrection of Jesus Christ/ the day he was begotten/declared the Son of God by the same, appointed heir, his inheritance, and in the same breath by whom He also made the worlds and called into the order of another priesthood. He didn't even take on the honour of order of Melchisedec without being called and Psalm 110:1 speaking to the same resurrection and being called in the order here at the same time

Psalam 110:1 [[A Psalm of David.]] The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

Psalm 110:4 The LORD hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek.

Edited it for clarity
 
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