The golden calf and the Trinity

[DNB]

first thanks for the reply. second, ERROR, nope Paul is telling us, and U that Jesus before he took on flesh as the ordinal "Last", he is the ordinal "First", Creator and Maker of all things. God almighty

for the "ROCK" is God almighty HIMSELF. supportive scripture, Deuteronomy 32:1 "Give ear, O ye heavens, and I will speak; and hear, O earth, the words of my mouth."(DBN, DBN, this is God speaking)
Deuteronomy 32:2 "My doctrine shall drop as the rain, my speech shall distil as the dew, as the small rain upon the tender herb, and as the showers upon the grass:"
Deuteronomy 32:3 "Because I will publish the name of the LORD: ascribe ye greatness unto our God."
Deuteronomy 32:4 "He is the Rock, his work is perfect: for all his ways are judgment: a God of truth and without iniquity, just and right is he." BINGO. OUR God is the "ROCK" of my salvation.

JESUS is the "ROCK" our God, understand, you didn't have a clue who JESUS is in the OT, did you? "a" God of truth, say what? "a" God, yes, for God is "a" Spirit, per John 4:24a... (smile). a God of "TRUTH", Jesus is the "TRUTH", and the WAY. and he, JESUS is without "SIN", and he is our "righteousness", and he, Jesus is Just.

Now DBN, just where did you get that false statement from, " a thought. The rock was the principle of faith that God had always intended to be the means towards salvation. Paul is alluding to the fact that the evidence of the change of Covenants was always there in the beginning, even at Rephidim and Meribah". that's sounds so proper, and yet so WRONG. are you sure U got that from God?. LISTEN UP that principle of Faith in the NEW covenant was before Israel even went into Egypt, it was promised in Abraham the father of FAITH.... LOL. and you came up with that nonesense. .... man oh man. that's embarrassing. for even a novice bible student would not have made that mistake. 2 Timothy 2:15 "Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth."

see DNB, your statement was not rightly divided. guess you are not studying.

since you feil miserable on the "ROCK", who is a "STONE" of stumbling, let see if we can redeem you a bit, so let's try again on that golden calf Hebrews 1:8 "But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom." (DNB, note the definite article is use here of the "Son")
Hebrews 1:9 "Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows."
Hebrews 1:10 "And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands:"

ok, DNB, the second time around should be better than the first, so tell us by NAME who Laid the foundation of the earth. Jesus the ordinal "FIRST", or Jesus the ordinal "LAST?" ..... or you can Go with another answer... your reply please.

PICJAG.

Yes, Abraham was the progenitor of the principle of faith. But not entirely, for anyone who believes in God, as in Noah, Abel, Enoch etc... exudes faith, and it has always pleased God, ...and has always been the eternal decree towards salvation.
I said what I said, because i felt that it wasn't necessary to regress to the beginning. The point was valid enough merely referring to Moses' era, plus, that what specifically what you asked me about. You jumped to way too many conclusions about my understanding and insight into God's Word. You incriminated yourself.
God saved Jesus till the appointed time, He saved the best for last. Adam came first chronologically, but it was always in God's mind to reveal Jesus when He was ready. And when He did, it was only then that Jesus had life and a consciousness, no earlier than 4 BC.

 

[Cooper]

Yes, Abraham was the progenitor of the principle of faith. But not entirely, for anyone who believes in God, as in Noah, Abel, Enoch etc... exudes faith, and it has always pleased God, ...and has always been the eternal decree towards salvation.
I said what I said, because i felt that it wasn't necessary to regress to the beginning. The point was valid enough merely referring to Moses' era, plus, that what specifically what you asked me about. You jumped to way too many conclusions about my understanding and insight into God's Word. You incriminated yourself.
God saved Jesus till the appointed time, He saved the best for last. Adam came first chronologically, but it was always in God's mind to reveal Jesus when He was ready. And when He did, it was only then that Jesus had life and a consciousness, no earlier than 4 BC.

GOD became flesh on earth while remaining God in heaven.
.

 

[DNB]

GOD became flesh.
.

Veritable Blasphemy!

 

[Cooper]

Veritable Blasphemy!

And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifested in the flesh, Justified in the Spirit, Seen by angels, Preached among the Gentiles, Believed on in the world, Received up in glory. (1 Timothy 3:16 NKJV)

It is scriptural according to prophecy.

"But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, Though you are little among the thousands of Judah, Yet out of you shall come forth to Me The One to be Ruler in Israel, Whose goings forth are from of old, From everlasting." (Micah 5:2 NKJV)

 

[Stumpmaster]

Their request was, “make us gods who shall go before us.” After Aaron had made the calf he said to them, “These are your gods, O Israel, who brought you up out of the land of Egypt!” In both of these statements the plural “gods” was used and yet there was only one calf.

I believe Aaron was bullied into compliance by the multitude who who tired of doing what Moses wanted, and that Aaron in his naive and as yet unsanctified state produced the golden calf in a fleshly, exasperated, sarcastic gesture to them, and was being kind of hip and satirical when he presented it with the words "these are your gods", like a pimped out representin' thing.

 

[rockytopva]

Veritable Blasphemy!

What do you do the with the scripture...

And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory. - 1 Timothy 3:16

 

[DNB]

And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifested in the flesh, Justified in the Spirit, Seen by angels, Preached among the Gentiles, Believed on in the world, Received up in glory. (1 Timothy 3:16 NKJV)

It is scriptural according to prophecy.

"But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, Though you are little among the thousands of Judah, Yet out of you shall come forth to Me The One to be Ruler in Israel, Whose goings forth are from of old, From everlasting." (Micah 5:2 NKJV)

You're using an emendated/corrupted text to make your point. )1 Timothy 3:16)
Similar is Micah 5:2.

NET Bible
As for you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, seemingly insignificant among the clans of Judah--from you a king will emerge who will rule over Israel on my behalf, one whose origins are in the distant past.


of eternity.
עוֹלָֽם׃ (‘ō·w·lām)
Noun - masculine singular
Strong's Hebrew 5769: Concealed, eternity, frequentatively, always

 

[DNB]

What do you do the with the scripture...

And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory. - 1 Timothy 3:16

Quite a bit. First and foremost, you are using a corrupted text to make your point. Every reputable textual scholar, worth mentioning, knows that the proper rendering of the verse is as follows.

English Standard Version
Great indeed, we confess, is the mystery of godliness: He was manifested in the flesh, vindicated by the Spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed among the nations, believed on in the world, taken up in glory.

NET Bible
And we all agree, our religion contains amazing revelation: He was revealed in the flesh, vindicated by the Spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed among Gentiles, believed on in the world, taken up in glory.

 

[rockytopva]

You're using an emendated/corrupted text to make your point. )1 Timothy 3:16)
Similar is Micah 5:2.

NET Bible
As for you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, seemingly insignificant among the clans of Judah--from you a king will emerge who will rule over Israel on my behalf, one whose origins are in the distant past.


of eternity.
עוֹלָֽם׃ (‘ō·w·lām)
Noun - masculine singular
Strong's Hebrew 5769: Concealed, eternity, frequentatively, always

You don't have enough to call someone a heretic .

 

[101G]

Yes, Abraham was the progenitor of the principle of faith. But not entirely, for anyone who believes in God, as in Noah, Abel, Enoch etc... exudes faith, and it has always pleased God

GINOLJC, to all.
first thanks for the reply, second, "But not entirely?" he was called out to be the "father" of many Nations. for his "SEED" not SEED(S) was in the promise, did God promise Noah, Abel, Enoch etc? ....... thank you.

I said what I said, because i felt that it wasn't necessary to regress to the beginning.

Well what you say is no means to the TRUTH, only God words are truth. the I's don't have it when it comes to God. word unless spoken in TRUTH, he is the only I that have it. it's what he says in his word that is truth, not us. so speak what is written, and not what U think.

You jumped to way too many conclusions about my understanding and insight into God's Word. You incriminated yourself.

look DNB, quit complaining, and just speak what God says instead of what you THINK, which has no value whenn it contridict the word of God.
and as for Jumping to any conclusions, I have only one, "Jesus is God in flesh as the diversity of himself". that's all I been saying... next?

God saved Jesus till the appointed time, He saved the best for last. Adam came first chronologically, but it was always in God's mind to reveal Jesus when He was ready. And when He did, it was only then that Jesus had life and a consciousness, no earlier than 4 BC.

see what I mean, "God saved Jesus till the appointed time" are you kidding youself? JESUS is God, this is why you are in ERROR all the time... "God saved Jesus ..... till the appointed time". did you not read where we explain "administrations" or "dispensations?"", meaning in TIME, and the ordinal First and the ordinal Last are clearly explain in place and time, in order, have we not said this already? and this which you have tried to understand, and cannot. we have address all of this already. you see only your way, at least we read what you have to say and evaluate it for proper response, but do you read what we have posted? apparently not. for if you did you would have know this already. and your thinking of what the bible supposed to have said, which you have never read in the bible.

lets prove this out by example. these are not trick questions, but are in the bible.

#1. was God, Jesus, alone when he Made all things? yes or no

#2. was it ONE person or two or three person present when God made Man? per Genesis 1:26 & 27.

#3. is JESUS, the Spirit, with the title, "LORD"? the ordinal First according to Deuteronomy 6:4 "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:"

now here is a fresh start on the bible, how would answer all the above question which is only 3. if you will, answer each one please. and lets DISCUSS the word of God without complaining. fair enough?

PICJAG.

 

[101G]

GOD became flesh on earth while remaining God in heaven.

this is correct, the word, GOD, the Lord Jesus, the ordinal LAST was made, meaning that he G2758 κενόω kenoo himself in flesh as the "diversity" of himself as or in likeness as a man, meaning he "TOOK PART" in our humanity, and was not a "PARTAKER" of it... :cool: Philippians 2:6 & 7 clearly stated this. diverse, or shared equally in flesh, he Jesus, GOD, was able to be in heaven "eternity" as "Spirit", notice the cap "S" in Spirit, and at the same time in Intrinsic Spatial on earth in TIME and PLACE as, as, as, a man(spirit), notice the small case "s" in spirit... which indicatre the diversity as a man in flesh and blood BINGO. what a God we serve. a MIGHTY GOD, an EVERLASTING GOD. a God of TRUTH, who is the only "LIVING" God.

so Cooper you're correct in that fact.

PICJAG.

 

[DNB]

You don't have enough to call someone a heretic .

Sorry, where did that come from?

 

[DNB]

#1. was God, Jesus, alone when he Made all things? yes or no - Jesus was not alive during creation, he was only a thought in God's mind. Yes, God was alone when He created all things, all by Himself.

#2. was it ONE person or two or three person present when God made Man? per Genesis 1:26 & 27. - There was only one divine being present, which is God the Father, when he created all things, including man.

#3. is JESUS, the Spirit, with the title, "LORD"? the ordinal First according to Deuteronomy 6:4 "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:" - Of course not, Jesus was only a thought in God's mind at this point. Only the Father is God, and the Shema is referring exclusively and unequivocally about the Father. No other persons, spirits, entities, or beings are addressed in the Shema, it is only God the Father alone.

 

[101G]

#1. was God, Jesus, alone when he Made all things? yes or no - Jesus was not alive during creation, he was only a thought in God's mind. Yes, God was alone when He created all things, all by Himself.

we don't need to go any futher.
good day.

PICJAG.

 

[tigger 2]

Cooper wrote (post 124):

And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifested in the flesh, Justified in the Spirit, Seen by angels, Preached among the Gentiles, Believed on in the world, Received up in glory. (1 Timothy 3:16 NKJV)
................................
Although the KJV (and those few modern related ones like NKJV) translates 1 Tim. 3:16 with “God” as above, nearly all other translations today use a word which refers, not to God, but to Jesus: “he” (NIV; RSV; NRSV; JB; NJB; REB; NAB [‘70]; AT; GNB; CBW; and Beck’s translation), “he who” (ASV; NASB; NEB; MLB; BBE; Phillips; and Moffatt), “who,” or “which.” Even the equally old Douay version has “which was manifested in the flesh.”

All the very best modern NT texts by trinitarian scholars (including Westcott and Hort, Nestle, and the text by the United Bible Societies) have the NT Greek word ὃς (“who”) here instead of θεὸς (“God”). Why do the very best trinitarian scholars support this NON-trinitarian translation of 1 Tim. 3:16?

Noted Bible scholar Dr. Frederick C. Grant writes:

“A capital example [of NT manuscript changes] is found in 1 Timothy 3:16, where ‘OS’ (OC or ὃς, ‘who’) was later taken for theta sigma with a bar above, which stood for theos (θεὸς, ‘god’). Since the new reading suited …. the orthodox doctrine of the church [trinitarian, at this later date], it got into many of the later manuscripts .....” – p. 656, Encyclopedia Americana, vol. 3, 1957 ed. (This same statement by Dr. Grant was still to be found in the latest Encyclopedia Americana that I examined – the 1990 ed., pp.696-698, vol. 3.)

A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament by the United Bible Societies (1971 ed.) tells why the trinitarian UBS Committee chose ὃς [‘who’ or ‘he who’] as the original reading in their NT text for this verse:

“it is supported by the earliest and best uncials.” And, “Thus, no uncial (in the first hand [by the ORIGINAL writer]) earlier than the eighth or ninth century supports θεὸς [“God”]; all ancient versions presuppose ὃς [or OC, “who” - masc.] or ὅ [“which” - neut.]; and no patristic writer prior to the last third of the fourth century [370 A.D.] testifies to the reading θεὸς. The reading θεὸς arose either (a) accidentally, through the misreading of OC as ΘC, or (b) deliberately....” - p. 641.

In actuality it appears to be a combination of both (with the emphasis on the latter). You see, the word ὃς was written in the most ancient manuscripts as OC (“C” being a common form for the ancient Greek letter “S” at that time). Most often at this time the word for God (θεὸς) was written in abbreviated form as ΘC. However, to show that it was an abbreviated form a straight line, or bar, was always drawn above ΘC. So no copyist should have mistaken ὃς (or OC) for ΘC, in spite of their similarities, simply because of the prominent bar which appeared over the one and not over the other.

What may have happened was discovered by John J. Wetstein in 1714. As he was carefully examining one of the oldest NT manuscripts then known (the Alexandrine Manuscript in London) he noticed at 1 Tim. 3:16 that the word originally written there was OC but that a horizontal stroke from one of the words written on the other side of the manuscript showed through very faintly in the middle of the O. This still would not qualify as an abbreviation for θεὸς, of course, but Wetstein discovered that some person at a much later date and in a different style from the original writer had deliberately added a bar above the original word! Anyone copying from this manuscript after it had been deliberately changed would be likely to incorporate the counterfeit ΘC [with bar above it] into his new copy (especially since it reflected his own trinitarian views)!

Of course, since Wetstein’s day many more ancient NT manuscripts have been discovered and none of them before the eighth century A.D. have been found with ΘC (“God”) at this verse!

Trinitarian scholar Murray J. Harris also concludes: “The strength of the external evidence favoring OC [‘who’], along with considerations of transcriptional and intrinsic probability, have prompted textual critics virtually unanimously to regard OC as the original text, a judgment reflected in NA(26) [Nestle-Aland text] and UBS (1,2,3) [United Bible Societies text] (with a ‘B’ rating) [also the Westcott and Hort text]. Accordingly, 1 Tim 3:16 is not an instance of the Christological [‘Jesus is God’] use of θεὸς.” - Jesus as God, p. 268, Baker Book House, 1992.

And very trinitarian (Southern Baptist) NT Greek scholar A. T. Robertson wrote about this scripture:

“He who (hos [or OC in the original text]). The correct text, not theos (God) the reading of the Textus Receptus ... nor ho (neuter relative [pronoun]), agreeing with [the neuter] musterion [‘mystery’] the reading of Western documents.” - p. 577, Vol. 4, Word Pictures in the New Testament, Broadman Press.

And even trinitarian NT Greek scholar, Daniel B. Wallace uses the relative pronoun ὃς (‘who’) in this scripture and tells us:

“The textual variant θεὸς [‘god’] in the place of ὃς [‘who’ or ‘he who’] has been adamantly defended by some scholars, particularly those of the ‘majority text’ school. Not only is such a reading poorly attested, but the syntactical argument that ‘mystery’ (μυστήριον) being a neuter noun, cannot be followed by the masculine pronoun (ὃς) is entirely without weight. As attractive theologically [for trinitarians, of course] as the reading θεὸς may be, it is spurious. To reject it is not to deny the deity of Christ, of course; it is just to deny any explicit reference in this text.” [italicized emphasis is by Wallace]. - pp. 341-342, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, Zondervan, 1996.

The correct rendering of 1 Tim. 3:16, then, is: “He who was revealed in the flesh ….” - NASB. Cf. ASV; RSV; NRSV; NAB; JB; NJB; NIV; NEB; REB; ESV; Douay-Rheims; TEV; CEV; BBE; NLV; God’s Word; New Century Version; Holman NT; ISV NT; Lexham English Bible; The Message; Weymouth; Moffatt; etc.

It is shameful that so many trinity apologists still use this spurious text to 'prove' their doctrine.

 

[Cooper]

Cooper wrote (post 124):

And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifested in the flesh, Justified in the Spirit, Seen by angels, Preached among the Gentiles, Believed on in the world, Received up in glory. (1 Timothy 3:16 NKJV)
................................
Although the KJV (and those few modern related ones like NKJV) translates 1 Tim. 3:16 with “God” as above, nearly all other translations today use a word which refers, not to God, but to Jesus: “he” (NIV; RSV; NRSV; JB; NJB; REB; NAB [‘70]; AT; GNB; CBW; and Beck’s translation), “he who” (ASV; NASB; NEB; MLB; BBE; Phillips; and Moffatt), “who,” or “which.” Even the equally old Douay version has “which was manifested in the flesh.”

All the very best modern NT texts by trinitarian scholars (including Westcott and Hort, Nestle, and the text by the United Bible Societies) have the NT Greek word ὃς (“who”) here instead of θεὸς (“God”). Why do the very best trinitarian scholars support this NON-trinitarian translation of 1 Tim. 3:16?

Noted Bible scholar Dr. Frederick C. Grant writes:

“A capital example [of NT manuscript changes] is found in 1 Timothy 3:16, where ‘OS’ (OC or ὃς, ‘who’) was later taken for theta sigma with a bar above, which stood for theos (θεὸς, ‘god’). Since the new reading suited …. the orthodox doctrine of the church [trinitarian, at this later date], it got into many of the later manuscripts .....” – p. 656, Encyclopedia Americana, vol. 3, 1957 ed. (This same statement by Dr. Grant was still to be found in the latest Encyclopedia Americana that I examined – the 1990 ed., pp.696-698, vol. 3.)

A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament by the United Bible Societies (1971 ed.) tells why the trinitarian UBS Committee chose ὃς [‘who’ or ‘he who’] as the original reading in their NT text for this verse:

“it is supported by the earliest and best uncials.” And, “Thus, no uncial (in the first hand [by the ORIGINAL writer]) earlier than the eighth or ninth century supports θεὸς [“God”]; all ancient versions presuppose ὃς [or OC, “who” - masc.] or ὅ [“which” - neut.]; and no patristic writer prior to the last third of the fourth century [370 A.D.] testifies to the reading θεὸς. The reading θεὸς arose either (a) accidentally, through the misreading of OC as ΘC, or (b) deliberately....” - p. 641.

In actuality it appears to be a combination of both (with the emphasis on the latter). You see, the word ὃς was written in the most ancient manuscripts as OC (“C” being a common form for the ancient Greek letter “S” at that time). Most often at this time the word for God (θεὸς) was written in abbreviated form as ΘC. However, to show that it was an abbreviated form a straight line, or bar, was always drawn above ΘC. So no copyist should have mistaken ὃς (or OC) for ΘC, in spite of their similarities, simply because of the prominent bar which appeared over the one and not over the other.

What may have happened was discovered by John J. Wetstein in 1714. As he was carefully examining one of the oldest NT manuscripts then known (the Alexandrine Manuscript in London) he noticed at 1 Tim. 3:16 that the word originally written there was OC but that a horizontal stroke from one of the words written on the other side of the manuscript showed through very faintly in the middle of the O. This still would not qualify as an abbreviation for θεὸς, of course, but Wetstein discovered that some person at a much later date and in a different style from the original writer had deliberately added a bar above the original word! Anyone copying from this manuscript after it had been deliberately changed would be likely to incorporate the counterfeit ΘC [with bar above it] into his new copy (especially since it reflected his own trinitarian views)!

Of course, since Wetstein’s day many more ancient NT manuscripts have been discovered and none of them before the eighth century A.D. have been found with ΘC (“God”) at this verse!

Trinitarian scholar Murray J. Harris also concludes: “The strength of the external evidence favoring OC [‘who’], along with considerations of transcriptional and intrinsic probability, have prompted textual critics virtually unanimously to regard OC as the original text, a judgment reflected in NA(26) [Nestle-Aland text] and UBS (1,2,3) [United Bible Societies text] (with a ‘B’ rating) [also the Westcott and Hort text]. Accordingly, 1 Tim 3:16 is not an instance of the Christological [‘Jesus is God’] use of θεὸς.” - Jesus as God, p. 268, Baker Book House, 1992.

And very trinitarian (Southern Baptist) NT Greek scholar A. T. Robertson wrote about this scripture:

“He who (hos [or OC in the original text]). The correct text, not theos (God) the reading of the Textus Receptus ... nor ho (neuter relative [pronoun]), agreeing with [the neuter] musterion [‘mystery’] the reading of Western documents.” - p. 577, Vol. 4, Word Pictures in the New Testament, Broadman Press.

And even trinitarian NT Greek scholar, Daniel B. Wallace uses the relative pronoun ὃς (‘who’) in this scripture and tells us:

“The textual variant θεὸς [‘god’] in the place of ὃς [‘who’ or ‘he who’] has been adamantly defended by some scholars, particularly those of the ‘majority text’ school. Not only is such a reading poorly attested, but the syntactical argument that ‘mystery’ (μυστήριον) being a neuter noun, cannot be followed by the masculine pronoun (ὃς) is entirely without weight. As attractive theologically [for trinitarians, of course] as the reading θεὸς may be, it is spurious. To reject it is not to deny the deity of Christ, of course; it is just to deny any explicit reference in this text.” [italicized emphasis is by Wallace]. - pp. 341-342, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, Zondervan, 1996.

The correct rendering of 1 Tim. 3:16, then, is: “He who was revealed in the flesh ….” - NASB. Cf. ASV; RSV; NRSV; NAB; JB; NJB; NIV; NEB; REB; ESV; Douay-Rheims; TEV; CEV; BBE; NLV; God’s Word; New Century Version; Holman NT; ISV NT; Lexham English Bible; The Message; Weymouth; Moffatt; etc.

It is shameful that so many trinity apologists still use this spurious text to 'prove' their doctrine.

It is customary for spin doctors to write acres of text, and I generally ignore long posts on the basis that the truth can be told in a few words, usually with a simple yes, no, or with a short explanation. So let me ask you. Who could Paul possibly be writing about when he describes 'him' as manifested in the flesh, Seen of angels, preached among the nations, believed on in the world, and Received up in glory.

Clearly this is Jesus. The unbeliever will reply, "well Jesus was only a thought in the mind of God." If that is the case, I will ask, "who is the very thought of the living God, made manifest in the flesh if it isn't God himself?"
.

 

[Cooper]

#1. was God, Jesus, alone when he Made all things? yes or no - Jesus was not alive during creation, he was only a thought in God's mind. Yes, God was alone when He created all things, all by Himself.

#2. was it ONE person or two or three person present when God made Man? per Genesis 1:26 & 27. - There was only one divine being present, which is God the Father, when he created all things, including man.

#3. is JESUS, the Spirit, with the title, "LORD"? the ordinal First according to Deuteronomy 6:4 "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:" - Of course not, Jesus was only a thought in God's mind at this point. Only the Father is God, and the Shema is referring exclusively and unequivocally about the Father. No other persons, spirits, entities, or beings are addressed in the Shema, it is only God the Father alone.

#1. It was the One God who created all things.

#2. The One God is Father, Saviour, and Coming King.

#3. Jesus is LORD of the Shema, the very thought of God manifest on earth.

For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form, . . .Colossians 2:9

The thoughts of God ARE God.
.

 

[theophilus]

#2. was it ONE person or two or three person present when God made Man? per Genesis 1:26 & 27. - There was only one divine being present, which is God the Father, when he created all things, including man.

It was one person, God. He consists of three persons, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.

 

[Cooper]

It was one person, God. He consists of three persons, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.

This verse from Isaiah gives me such a thrill.

He hath swallowed up death for ever (Jesus); and the Lord Jehovah will wipe away tears from off all faces; (who will wipe away our tears? Jesus!) and the reproach of his people will he (Jesus) take away from off all the earth: for Jehovah (Jesus) hath spoken it. Isaiah 25:8

 

[101G]

It was one person, God. He consists of three persons, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.

we cannot agree with that assessment, for the person in John 1:3 who MADE ALL THINGS is the SAME ONE PERSON, in Isaiah 44:24 who MADE ALL THINGS if not then then you have two separate MAKERS, and that's anti bible.

PICJAG.