Tom_in_CA
New Member
Please define what YOU MEAN by truly objectively wrong.............
Uh, the definition of this is self-evident, but here goes : The difference between something that is objectively wrong, versus subjectively wrong, is this :
If it is OBJECTIVELY wrong, then that determination is OUTSIDE of what anyone or any society thinks. It doesn't matter what people vote on, or decide, or what-their-culture or society (the collective "we") thinks. It is still wrong. So for example, if we can agree that 2 + 2 = 4, then it WON'T matter how many people (the "we") that think that 2 + 2 = 5. They would simply be wrong. Because we have an outside objective scoring card which tells us an objective truth that: 2 + 2 = 4 .
But if it's SUBJECTIVELY wrong (your view), then the scoring card of right vs wrong is derived from the collective "we". The morals are subject to the individuals involved. THEY decide (your view) whether or not a moral is good or bad.
And so to apply this to our conversation : You repeatedly say that society (the collective "we") decide what is morally good or morally bad. Hence subjective to the society's vote, so-to-speak. But then oddly, you turn right around and point your finger at various historical atrocities, and call them "bad". And it is clear that you are meaning that in an objective sense, not subjective sense. As if you *really* mean truly "bad" and "wrong". However, to be consistent with your own relativism view, you'd have to say it's only your or your current society's particular view. And that it wasn't wrong for those past people, since their society decided/voted differently. You can't mean they were objectively wrong, since you don't believe morals are objective in the first place. You can only say you don't prefer what they did, not that they were truly "wrong".
Do you understand now ?
..... When I say that something is wrong it should be obvious why base on ALLLLLLLL I have shared about the reasons for the whys...........
Sure. But that's only talking about YOU. Perhaps Hitler and Stalin, and their societies (their collective "we") didn't/don't share your view. Sure, you have your "reasons". But guess what ? : They had their "reasons" that they felt were "obvious" too. So the most you can say is that you don't prefer their actions. Not that it was "wrong" in any objective sense.
.... the very concept of right and wrong exist because of PEOPLE assigning meaning to them..........
Yup. That's your view that morals (rights and wrongs) are subjective to people (the collective "we"). And yup, that's exactly what various past historical societies have done. And that's exactly why you can't look back through history and say any of them were "wrong" .
.... Once a system is adopted, objective assessment (e.i. this is right or that is wrong) can be made from that arbitrary/subjective point. Quite simple..........
Wow, so let me see if I understand this quote from you : Once a system (a collective societal "we") adopts an assessment (like that murder and rape is wrong), THEN that subjective assessment BECOMES objective. Is that what you are saying ? And that , presto, they can now point their finger at another historic time period or another continent/society, and say "You were/are wrong", and you/they can now mean that in an objective sense. Have I understood you correctly ? And if so, then Tom_in_CA can not deny Truth-OT the ability to call another person's moral objectively wrong, therefore. So in other words, you DO retain the right to look back at the Nazi system, and say "they were objectively wrong to do what they did ". Have I understood you correctly ?
If so, there are several problems with this. For starters, you have simply redefined the meaning of "subjective" to become "objective" . On your view, it magically BECOMES objective, the moment it reaches majority vote of a collective "we". But notice that decision was still subject to the individual subjective votes of the "we". So by mere definition it is NOT objective. Ok ? And Here's another problem with your re-definition :
If you were back in 1840, anywhere on earth, perhaps slavery and racism would have been common-place. It was just the accepted norm for most peoples (even blacks enslaved each other) . So therefore, on-your-view, that position, that slavery was ok, would be an objective truth. Since it was the definition of the collective world-wide "we" that decides and agreed that slavery was ok. However, now we are in the present year 2020. And if you took a collective vote of the entire world, the vote, today, would no doubt be that slavery is morally wrong and bad. Eh ?
So in that case, you can't have two contradicting "objective" standards. Slavery can not be wrong and right, at the same way . That violates the law of non-contradiction : Law of noncontradiction - Wikipedia So who was right ? The people in 1840 ? Or the people today ? They can not both be objectively right, yet contradict each other. One of them has to be wrong. And other example: Is gay-bashing ok ? There are strict Islamic countries that practice that today. So on your view, since it passed their majority collective-we vote, then it's an objective truth that gay-bashing is ok. However, that is NOT going to be the vote result , if you polled some other countries. Hence you have a contradiction. Hence it's subjective, and never magically became "objective". See ?
Thus your view is failing the test drive. And you can not simply announce that when you say someone else, or some other society or era is/was "wrong", that you mean that objectively. Unless, of course, you DID believe that morals are objective. Yet the problem is , you are repeatedly saying that morals are subjective, not objective. Therefore you have no ability to wag your finger at past atrocities and call them truly "wrong". You can only mean that subjectively, on your view.
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