What begins the great tribulation? And how long does it lasts ? What ends the great tribulation ?
It is all on my chart, lower left corner. The plagues of the seven vials will take place during the 1335 days.
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Here is one way you need to try and reason it then.
Revelation 16:2 And the first went, and poured out his vial upon the earth; and there fell a noisome and grievous sore upon the men which had the mark of the beast, and upon them which worshipped his image.
This vial is obviously poured out first and it obviously isn't going to be poured out on anyone until this is true first---the men which had the mark of the beast, and upon them which worshipped his image.
Though, Amils might disagree, no one can have the mark of the beast and worship his image until a beast rises out of the sea first and another out of the earth and that the 42 month reign of the beast begins(Revelation 13). Obviously, this 42 month reign is involving great tribulation. There's the start of your great tribulation, it involves the fulfilling of Revelation 13, for one.
Revelation 13:4 And they worshipped the dragon which gave power unto the beast: and they worshipped the beast, saying, Who is like unto the beast? who is able to make war with him?
Obviously, as of this point in time not one single vial of wrath has been poured out yet. One reason why is because if any vials have been poured out, no one in their right mind would be saying Who is like unto the beast? who is able to make war with him? Obviously, the vials of wrath involve making war with the beast and those worshiping his image.
There is zero in all of Revelation 13 which involves an entire 42 months that gives the impression that any of the vials are being poured out at the time. This tells us the vials are after the 42 months come and go. This tells us the vials of wrath are after great tribulation, not during it nor prior to it.
It is impossible that any of the vials of wrath are being poured out before the day of the Lord begins. It is also impossible that the day of the Lord begins prior to great tribulation and involves great tribulation. The day of the Lord involves darkness, even if literal darkness is not meant, that does not matter. The point is that Matthew 24:29 places the time of darkness immediately after great tribulation, not before nor during it.
Even if none of the following is meaning in the literal sense--the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven(Matthew 24:29)---what would happen if something like that literally happened, though? It would cause darkness, obviously. Therefore, the imagery being used depicts darkness, exactly one of the things the day of the Lord involves according to some of the following passages.
Amos 5:20 Shall not the day of the LORD be darkness, and not light? even very dark, and no brightness in it?
Acts 2:19 And I will shew wonders in heaven above, and signs in the earth beneath; blood, and fire, and vapour of smoke:
20 The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before that great and notable day of the Lord come:
Luke 21:25 And there shall be signs in the sun, and in the moon, and in the stars; and upon the earth distress of nations, with perplexity; the sea and the waves roaring;
26 Men's hearts failing them for fear, and for looking after those things which are coming on the earth: for the powers of heaven shall be shaken.
Luke 21:25-26 sounds a lot like Acts 2:19 to me. And that Matthew 24:29 places the time of Luke 21:25-26 immediately after great tribulation.
I know, I get it, your charts are what is correct, not the Bible. We are to go by your charts not the Bible since you obviously place your charts above that of the Bible, and that your charts trump everything in the Bible, because no way can Douggg ever be wrong about any of these things, and the charts he makes proves it again and again and again, every single time. Except the idea is to try and agree with the Bible not trump it instead. As if the the Bible can be trumped to begin with.