Verily
Well-Known Member
@David in NJ do this for me, show me which verse exactly is Davy leaving out of Hosea in point #5 that you want me to see
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i do not think Davy said anything wrongI am missing the problem or just not catching what you are in his post, maybe he will clarify.
10“Yet the number of the children of Israel@David in NJ do this for me, show me which verse exactly is Davy leaving out of Hosea in point #5 that you want me to see
But it is not that the word of God has taken no effect. For they are not all Israel who are of Israel, nor are they all children because they are the seed of Abraham; but, “In Isaac your seed shall be called.” That is, those who are the children of the flesh, these are not the children of God; but the children of the promise are counted as the seed. For this is the word of promise: “At this time I will come and Sarah shall have a son.”@David in NJ do this for me, show me which verse exactly is Davy leaving out of Hosea in point #5 that you want me to see
Now I have understood it as you have put it, that it refers to the Gentiles (only) I thought it couldnt be more clearer, but then someone else posted an argument somewhere against how that was supposed to be understood, and thats when I try to double check myself. I think I went over to Bible Hub to get a feeling as to any discrepencies on it which seem to be in agreement with the argument I read and what I seem to be catching with Davy's undertsanding on this.i do not think Davy said anything wrong
the MAIN Truth that the Apostle Paul is verifying from OT Scripture is this:
a.) the Messiah would come thru the Promised SEED which in Abraham's Day was Isaac, then Jacob
b.) the Lord Jesus Christ is the Promised SEED spoken of to Abraham for ALL nations = the SAVIOR of the World
c.) the Jewish people cannot claim eternal life thru their flesh descendancy from Abraham
d.) the Holy Spirit spoke thru OT prophets of Gentiles coming to God thru the Promised Seed which is MESSIAH
Conclusion: the Jews lost SIGHT of God's Eternal Way which, thru the MESSIAH(and even before) would include the Gentiles and thus they were called "not My people"
the Holy Spirit, said: I will call them My people where they were called "not My people"/Gentiles
This is CLEARLY shown to us in the Gospel of John chapter 1 and thru the Apostles writings and finally Revelation
It includes BOTH the Jews and the GentilesNow I have understood it as you have put it, that it refers to the Gentiles (only) I thought it couldnt be more clearer, but then someone else posted an argument somewhere against how that was supposed to be understood, and thats when I try to double check myself. I think I went over to Bible Hub to get a feeling as to any discrepencies on it which seem to be in agreement with the argument I read and what I seem to be catching with Davy's undertsanding on this.
It does incude the Gentiles, (the other argument said so much also). I wasnt really getting why it had to be a little more complicated than what seemed clear enough to me, but its those little details that will get cha.
Maybe someone else will chime in on this too.
You were implying he was leaving out a verse concerning the Gentiles, not Israel though werent you?10“Yet the number of the children of Israel
Shall be as the sand of the sea,
Which cannot be measured or numbered.
And it shall come to pass
In the place where it was said to them,
‘You are not My people,’
There it shall be said to them,
‘You are sons of the living God.’
11Then the children of Judah and the children of Israel
Shall be gathered together,
And appoint for themselves one head;
And they shall come up out of the land,
For great will be the day of Jezreel!
No. In Acts 3:25-26, Jesus came are the promised seed to bless us by turning us from our wickedness, so while we do not earn the promise as the result of our works, the content of what is promised is still in regard to Jesus leading us to obey God's law.Do you feel the above verse contradicted your stance somehow?
There are these in respects to Abraham
Romans 4:10 How was it then reckoned? when he was in circumcision, or in uncircumcision?
Not in circumcision, but in uncircumcision.
Romans 4:13 For the promise, that he should be the heir of the world, was not to Abraham, or to his seed, through the law, but through the righteousness of faith.
It includes BOTH the Jews and the Gentiles
Forgive, if i said Gentiles only
i went back and checked my post = i did not say - gentiles onlyNow I have understood it as you have put it, that it refers to the Gentiles (only) I thought it couldnt be more clearer, but then someone else posted an argument somewhere against how that was supposed to be understood, and thats when I try to double check myself. I think I went over to Bible Hub to get a feeling as to any discrepencies on it which seem to be in agreement with the argument I read and what I seem to be catching with Davy's undertsanding on this.
It does incude the Gentiles, (the other argument said so much also). I wasnt really getting why it had to be a little more complicated than what seemed clear enough to me, but its those little details that will get cha.
Maybe someone else will chime in on this too.
No. In Acts 3:25-26, Jesus came are the promised seed to bless us by turning us from our wickedness, so while we do not earn the promise as the result of our works, what is promised is still in regard to Jesus leading us to obey God's law.
The only way for someone to become righteous is through faith, but what it means for someone to become righteous is for them to become a doer of righteous works in obedience to God's law, this is why the same faith by which we are declared righteous apart from works does not abolish our need to obey God's law, but rather our faith upholds it (Romans 3:27-31).
i was refering to the fact that Hosea speaks of Jews and GentilesYou were implying he was leaving out a verse concerning the Gentiles, not Israel though werent you?
You just said the abovethis applies to the Gentiles who come to MESSIAH
I know it does, what makes you think I am missing this
Did i use the word "ONLY" ???You just said the above
Thats why I posted behind you saying (see the red and blue highlights) between themi was refering to the fact that Hosea speaks of Jews and Gentiles
If Davy meant for the Jews only, then he is incorrect
i love colors = super helpful to distinguishThats why I posted behind you saying (see the red and blue highlights) between them
I believe that is what Davy means when he wrote #5 and #6
5. God then reveals prophecy of what He would do to Ephraim and the ten tribed "house of Israel". That He would scatter then to new lands, and there give them the full weight of their Baal idol worship they forget Him for. But then He would give them a door of hope, and a new covenant in new lands, and no longer called them, 'no My people' (Lo-Ami), but instead Ami, meaning 'My people', and others with them would also be called the sons of the living GOD. (see Book of Hosea).
6. Apostle Paul in Romans 9 would quote from the Book of Hosea to Gentile Roman believers on Jesus Christ, referring to them also as the sons of the living GOD reference in Hosea along with the ten tribe "house of Israel".
Notice in #5 (Red and blue)
and no longer called them, 'no My people' (Lo-Ami), but instead Ami, meaning 'My people', and others with them
Notice in #6 (Blue and red)
in Romans 9 would quote from the Book of Hosea to Gentile Roman believers on... along with the ten tribe "house of Israel".
He shows both
When i said Hosea speaks of the Gentiles i did not say ONLY the GentilesWhat are you talking about?
I personally used the word only because you seemed to be correcting Davys post in Post #16 as though it were for Gentiles only, when Davy included both.When i said Hosea speaks of the Gentiles i did not say ONLY the Gentiles