farouk
Well-Known Member
"And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus." (Matthew 1.25)At NO POINT in Scripture does it say Mary had other children....if it does show it to me....;);)
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"And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus." (Matthew 1.25)At NO POINT in Scripture does it say Mary had other children....if it does show it to me....;);)
The point is Scripture only calls her a virgin and does not call ANYONE in the NT her child except Jesus.....You accept the 500 teachings of Protestant men. I accept the 2,000 year teaching of Scripture and The Church.The point is a woman is a virgin until she has sex. Once she is married she will have sex and will no longer be a virgin.
You are in denial that the word has more than one meaning. I don't deny it has more than one meaning. You loose....againNo one is in denial but you who perpetuates the lies of the rcc/the mary-cult.
...and it just does not wash. It is a blatant Lie & one of the many propagated by the Roman Catholic Church creating it's False counterfeit religion.
BUT scripture does call Jesus her FIRST BORN. Which implies that she had other children. Don't you 'get' that?The point is Scripture only calls her a virgin and does not call ANYONE in the NT her child except Jesus.....You accept the 500 teachings of Protestant men. I accept the 2,000 year teaching of Scripture and The Church.
Well she was a virgin because at the time she was impregnated by the Holy spirit she was just a young, unmarried teenage girl. But once she was married she would have had a normal sexual relationship with her husband and borne more children. If she refused to have sex with him she would have been unnatural and perhaps ungodly as she refused to submit to her husband's natural desires.The point is Scripture only calls her a virgin and does not call ANYONE in the NT her child except Jesus.....You accept the 500 teachings of Protestant men. I accept the 2,000 year teaching of Scripture and The Church.
Don't lose your soul.You are in denial that the word has more than one meaning. I don't deny it has more than one meaning. You loose....again
If you knew Scripture and Jewish history you would know that the “firstborn” were not given the title because there was a “second-born.” They were called “firstborn” at birth. Jesus being “firstborn” does not require that more siblings be born after him."And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus." (Matthew 1.25)
What about James?If you knew Scripture and Jewish history you would know that the “firstborn” were not given the title because there was a “second-born.” They were called “firstborn” at birth. Jesus being “firstborn” does not require that more siblings be born after him.
Joseph didn't have SEX with his wife Mary, unTIL after Jesus was born.If you knew Scripture and Jewish history you would know that the “firstborn” were not given the title because there was a “second-born.” They were called “firstborn” at birth. Jesus being “firstborn” does not require that more siblings be born after him.
Where does Scripture say she had normal sexual relationship with her husband? I can't find it....Well she was a virgin because at the time she was impregnated by the Holy spirit she was just a young, unmarried teenage girl. But once she was married she would have had a normal sexual relationship with her husband and borne more children. If she refused to have sex with him she would have been unnatural and perhaps ungodly as she refused to submit to her husband's natural desires.
I answered that already.Where does Scripture say she had normal sexual relationship with her husband?
James is described as the son of "Alphaeus" (Matt. 10:3), which would mean this other Mary, whoever she was, was the wife of both Clopas and Alphaeus. However, Alphaeus and Clopas are the same person, since the Aramaic name for Alphaeus could be rendered in Greek either as "Alphaeus" or as "Clopas".What about James?
You need to learn Greek....;)Joseph didn't have SEX with his wife Mary, unTIL after Jesus was born.
Ridiculous for you to keep ignoring the word "TIL" that is written in scripture.
Look we know , that if the bible EVEN included the birth certificates of all of Jesus brothers & sisters--- the Roman Catholic Church would have shredded them & called them imposters, because the TRUTH doesn't serve this Counterfeit religion's self-promoting purposes.
The Roman church of Constantine combined paganism with Christianity and the false image of the holy mother is nothing but a make-over of the pagan worship of the sacred female -> the goddess image.
It didn't talk about them having sex......That's my point.I answered that already.
WHY would the BIBLE that is about the Gospel of the Lord JESUS Christ , talk about his mother, the wife of Joseph - having SEX??
My soul is fine.....Anyone that has the Truth has a clean soul. ;)Don't lose your soul.
No Rcc is going to be there standing in your defense in heaven. (there is no purgatory , nor do masses & or hail marys or prayers by relatives at your funeral get you into heaven.
She didn't have other children by waving a magic wand.It didn't talk about them having sex......That's my point.
Your point is that it did talk about them having sex.....
Really? ....suddenly U --no habla inglais??It didn't talk about them having sex......That's my point.
Your point is that it did talk about them having sex.....
...and by your own words...that is the problem you find yourself in.Anyone that has the Truth has a clean soul
Both Scripture and I agree with you....She didn't have other children by waving a wand. ;)She didn't have other children by waving a magic wand.