@Hillsage
This is an interesting reference below.
The word "holy" appears in the Greek in the first instance of "spirit", which infers definite article as [the]. ???
The second "spirit" has the definite article but does not have "holy".
Luke 4: NIV
Jesus, full of
the Holy Spirit, left the Jordan and was led by
the Spirit into the wilderness,
/
Brother SteVen, now you are complicating that which I am trying to bring up from the deep to those who won't go deep. WHY?
Because they think they are Holy Spirit led and don't need the words of 'truth' that comes from the fivefold ministry whose job it is to bring the body of CHRIST into "
the measure of the stature of the fulness of Christ;" . One of those is words from
PROPHETS and another is 'words' from
TEACHERS.
EPH 4:11* And his gifts were that some should be apostles, some prophets, some evangelists, some pastors and teachers,
12 to equip the saints for the work of ministry, for building up the body of Christ,
13* until we all attain to the unity of the faith and of the knowledge of the Son of God, to mature manhood, to the measure of the stature of the fulness of Christ;
Now I'll answer your question.
JESUS is an exception to the rule. Because his spirit never had to be BORN AGAIN into
the spirit of Christ IN HIM. He was born with the spirit we weren't born with.
That's why scripture said;
HEB 2:17 Therefore he had to be made like his brethren in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make expiation for the sins of the people.
He wasn't made like all humans
in every respect because no human but Him ever had the spirit of Christ DWELLING IN them. Oh sure that HOLY SPIRIT did touch the hearts of PROPHETS in the old testement when it was revealing the things of God to men through them. But that spirit didn't DWELL permanently IN THEM like it does IN US.
1PE 1:10 The prophets who prophesied of the grace that was to be yours searched and inquired about this salvation;
11 they inquired what person or time was indicated by the Spirit of Christ within them when predicting the sufferings of Christ and the subsequent glory.
Anyway, back to your question.
In the Greek...SOMETIMES...when it is talking about ''
the spirit" WITH the definite article, it is talking about
'the spirit' we received from God (before and after new birth), or it is talking about '
the spirit'
Jesus received from God (at birth). In those verses you really need to check the CONTEXT to correctly determine the interpretation.
You should have noticed in your EPH 4:1 GREEK INTERLINEAR translation the Greek says '
spirit holy'. But sometimes it says '
holy spirit '? Say WHAT?? And
in your verse of question I believe it is talking about Jesus being full of the Christ spirit which was holy and it was that spirit which led Him into the wilderness to have His soul tested/tempted by the devil concerning the words that should be spoken when HE or any of US is tempted. He certainly didn't do any supernatural miracles in the wilderness.
That would have been manifesting the POWER of the person of THE SPIRIT of GOD. BUT Jesus proved His character worthy enough that GOD could trust Jesus with THE HOLY SPIRIT OF CHRIST in Him, to speak the WORDS FROM GOD WITHOUT MEASURE. JOHN 3;34
EW Bullinger in his Word Study on the Holy Spirit Book concerning John 3:34 says: ""This verse would be better translated "
He whom God hath sent (Jesus) speaketh the words of God: for THE Spirit (Of Christ in Him) giveth not the words of God by measure unto Him. (His soul)""
The
GREEN is mine above.