BreadOfLife
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WRONG.The man made idea of original sin is usually attributed to Augustine and made more popular by men like John Calvin. From Wikipedia " Augustine's formulation of original sin after 412 CE was popular among Protestant reformers, such as Martin Luther and John Calvin, who equated original sin with concupiscence (or "hurtful desire"), affirming that it persisted even after baptism and completely destroyed freedom to do good. Before 412 CE, Augustine said that free will was weakened but not destroyed by original sin.[2] But after 412 CE this changed to a loss of free will except to sin"
Original sin was never taught by Christ, nor His Apostles nor any Bible prophet.
Romans 5 refutes original sin:
Romans 5:12 "Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:"
"have sinned" shows one's personal culpability in sinning and not how was passively born a sinner against his will.
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Romans 5:14 "Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come."
If everyone was born having passively inherited Adam's sin, then all would be guilty of the same sin. Yet verse 14 speaks of those whom death reigned over yet they committed transgressions different from Adam. Hence they died as a result of their own sinning and not as a result of inheriting sin from Adam. If they died as a result of Adam's sin, then there would be no difference made between Adam's sin and their sin.
There would have been no need for Paul to spend the first three cahpters of Romans proving both Jew and Gentile are sinners and quoting many verses to prove they were if all were born dead having inherited Adam's sin. Yet nowhere in the frist three chapters of Romans where Paul concludes all have sinned does Paul even mention the idea of original sin. There would not be a more apt context than Romans chapters 1-3 for Paul to declare all are sinners for having inherited Adam's sin. Yet Paul shows in those chapters that sin is a transgression (1 John 3:4) men choose to commit not something passively inherited against their will.
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Romans 5:19 "For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous."
Paul does NOT say man were made sinners UNCONDITONALLY by Adam's transgression as he did NOT say many shall be UNCONDTIONALLY made righteous by Christ's perfect obedience. Calvinists read the idea of UNCONDITIONALLY made sinners into the verse.
1) Rom 5:19 is a if - then type statement. IF it is true that all are UNCONDITIONALLY made sinners by Adam's transgression, THEN it is equally true that same many will have UNCONDITONALLY inherited Christ's righteousness and you have created Universalism.
2) men are made sinners as Adam was made a sinner. Adam chose to sin and transgress God's law. Likewise, men today choose to transgress God's law (1 John 3:4) therefore conditionally made sinners for having chosen to sin (Romans 5:12). Men are conditionally made righteous for having chose to obey (Romans 6:16 - "obedience unto righteousness"). There is no example in the Bible of one declared righteous by God without first conditionally obeying God's righteous commands.
Original sin was simply defined by Augustine. Paul taught it - and YOU posted some of the verses.
You simply misinterpreted it.
Romans 5:14
"Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come."
This is about people NOT having sinned as Adam did and still being found guilty.
Your "If/Then" scenario of Romans 5:19 is nonsense. This isn't Universalism because it doesn't say "ALL" will be made righteous. It says "MANY".
It is saying plainly that just as everybody is guilty because of one guy's sin - a lot of people will be made righteous because of another guy's obedience.