Exactly. And she didn't resist, nor cry out. If it was force/rape, Holy Spirit would have inspired the writer to use another word as in verse 25, which is translated "force" but also could mean to seize upon, conquer, catch, prevail, restrain (you get the idea).
Verses 28 and 29 are talking about 2 consenting unmarried people. She isn't betrothed, so they must marry, having consensually engaged in sex. Now, if she had been betrothed, there would have been another course of action, such as death (as stated in previous verses) ...to put away sin. This is confirmed in the New Testament by Paul.
1 Corinthians 7 (KJV) ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ¹ Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman. ² Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband. … ⁸ I say therefore to the unmarried and widows, It is good for them if they abide even as I. ⁹ But if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn.
“But if any man think that he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin, if she pass the flower of her age, and need so require, let him do what he will, he sinneth not: let them marry.” — 1 Corinthians 7:36 (KJV)
If the Verses eluded "two consenting adults', then I never would have posted this thread ;)
Please re-read the Verses:
"28 If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married [and rapes her] and they are discovered, 29 he shall pay her father fifty shekels of silver. He must marry the young woman, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives."
For sake of argument, we can replace [and rapes her] with [and seduces her], [and coerces her], [and blackmails her], etc etc etc.... Nowhere does the Verses produce a 'slam dunk', that it was merely always consensual premarital sex alone ;). I would also imagine that the woman was told, by their father, again and again, that a single virgin, whom is ever known to be with a man, will seal her fate as never being married at all.
You seem to be desperately wanting the Verses to "clearly state" something the Verses do not clearly state.
Care to address post #32 now?