All who are not taken up to meet the Lord in the air when He comes will be left behind and killed.

[WPM]

Plenty to support it except some of you are clueless. That unless something comes right out and says so, such as Matthew 19:28, for example, that this supports a millennium after the 2nd coming, that means Premils have no biblical corroboration for their interpretation of Revelation 20:1-6.

Matthew 19:28 And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.


No mention of a thousand years in this passage. That then means Premils can't use this passage to support anything in Revelation 20:4-6, right? What a way to reason things, that unless something comes right out and says so, it can't mean that then, whatever one might be taking it to mean. IOW, Premils are not allowed to deduce anything but Amils are? For example, Revelation 20:4-6. Nowhere in those verses does it say one way or the other where the thousand years reign is taking place.

But even so, Amils insist it is meaning in heaven in a disembodied state, thus they deduce that. But when Premils do the same thing, deduce where the reign is taking place, now all of a sudden one isn't supposed to deduce anything, that unless something comes right out and plainly says so, it can't be true then. Where then in Revelation 20:4-6 does it plainly say that the reigning is taking place in heaven? Nowhere. Therefore, you, just like Premils, have to deduce that based on other Scriptures. Except when Premils do that, it is bad. When Amils do it, it is good.

This shows how bereft you are of any credible biblical support. This teaches nothing about your imaginary corrupt future millennium.

1. Where in Matthew 19:28, or anywhere else in Scripture, do you consider definitely corroborate the Premillennial interpretation of Revelation 20 that there are two distinct physical resurrection days (the first for the righteous, the second for the wicked) separated by a literal 1000 years+?
2. Where in Matthew 19:28, or anywhere else in Scripture, does it mention "resurrection days" (plural), pertaining to the end?
3. Where in Matthew 19:28, or anywhere else in Scripture, do you consider definitely teaches there are two distinct future judgement days (that will see all mankind stand before Christ to give account for their lives) separated by a literal 1000 years+?
4. Where in Matthew 19:28, or anywhere else in Scripture, does it mention "judgement days" (plural), in regard to the end?
5. Where in Matthew 19:28, or anywhere else in Scripture, do you consider definitely corroborates the Premillennial interpretation of Revelation 20 that Satan will be bound for a time-span of 1000 years after the Second Advent, then released for a "little season" to deceive the nations, and then destroy them?

 

[Spiritual Israelite]

Plenty to support it except some of you are clueless.

How does Luke 17:26-37 support Premill? Why are you trying to talk about anything but the passage that this thread is about? You said a little bit about it, and then I responded, and now you're back to trying to talk about anything but that passage.

That unless something comes right out and says so, such as Matthew 19:28, for example, that this supports a millennium after the 2nd coming, that means Premils have no biblical corroboration for their interpretation of Revelation 20:1-6.

There are several scriptures that come right out and say that Jesus has been reigning since His resurrection (Matthew 28:18, Ephesians 1:19-22, Colossians 1:12-13, Revelation 1:5-6, etc.). Do you have any scriptures which clearly say He will reign for a long time on the earth after He returns?

Matthew 19:28 And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.

No mention of a thousand years in this passage. That then means Premils can't use this passage to support anything in Revelation 20:4-6, right?

How does judging equate to ruling for a thousand years? Do you see Matthew 25:31-46 saying anything about Jesus ruling for a long time on earth rather than judging people?

Where do you have no clear scriptures to support your view? Amills have a lot of clear scriptures to support our view.

What a way to reason things, that unless something comes right out and says so, it can't mean that then, whatever one might be taking it to mean.

It doesn't always have to say so explicitly, but why would scripture NEVER clearly and straightforwardly teach Premill?

IOW, Premils are not allowed to deduce anything but Amils are? For example, Revelation 20:4-6. Nowhere in those verses does it say one way or the other where the thousand years reign is taking place.

But even so, Amils insist it is meaning in heaven in a disembodied state, thus they deduce that. But when Premils do the same thing, deduce where the reign is taking place, now all of a sudden one isn't supposed to deduce anything, that unless something comes right out and plainly says so, it can't be true then. Where then in Revelation 20:4-6 does it plainly say that the reigning is taking place in heaven? Nowhere. Therefore, you, just like Premils, have to deduce that based on other Scriptures. Except when Premils do that, it is bad. When Amils do it, it is good.

Can you stop your whining for a little while and address Luke 17:26-37 in more depth? Why do you try to deny that Luke 17:31-33 is related to the second coming of Christ? Do you believe that Luke 17:26-30 is related to the second coming? How about Luke 17:34-37?

 

[Spiritual Israelite]

This shows how bereft you are of any credible biblical support. This teaches nothing about your imaginary corrupt future millennium.

1. Where in Matthew 19:28, or anywhere else in Scripture, do you consider definitely corroborate the Premillennial interpretation of Revelation 20 that there are two distinct physical resurrection days (the first for the righteous, the second for the wicked) separated by a literal 1000 years+?
2. Where in Matthew 19:28, or anywhere else in Scripture, does it mention "resurrection days" (plural), pertaining to the end?
3. Where in Matthew 19:28, or anywhere else in Scripture, do you consider definitely teaches there are two distinct future judgement days (that will see all mankind stand before Christ to give account for their lives) separated by a literal 1000 years+?
4. Where in Matthew 19:28, or anywhere else in Scripture, does it mention "judgement days" (plural), in regard to the end?
5. Where in Matthew 19:28, or anywhere else in Scripture, do you consider definitely corroborates the Premillennial interpretation of Revelation 20 that Satan will be bound for a time-span of 1000 years after the Second Advent, then released for a "little season" to deceive the nations, and then destroy them?

Exactly! Where does that verse say anything in any way, shape or form about anyone being ruled for a thousand years or a long time? Nowhere! Why do Premills equate judging people with ruling over people for a thousand years? Do they try to claim that it takes Jesus a thousand years to judge the sheep and the goats?

Matthew 19:28 does not support Premill in any way, shape or form! Yet, that is the kind of verse that is part of the foundation of their doctrine! Meanwhile, the scriptures that form the foundation of Amill doctrine are all clear, straightforward scriptures.