Cooper
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- Jan 31, 2020
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can you explain how, (the same person), is separate and distinct?.No, because they are distinct, not separate.
LOL, I'm not even in the slightest worried about that. but you cannot even explain whay you say and believe, it's you who need to worry about that...It's alright, you are not going to be condemned for not seeing what it says in scripture about the distinctiveness of the members in the Godhead
GINOLJC, to all.
can you explain how, (the same person), is separate and distinct?.
PICJAG
you say the Father and the sone is the same person, but separate and distinct,
Hi @101G,
I do believe that Father, Son, and Holy Ghost, are absolutely ONE, so that the Father is the Son is the Holy Ghost.
However, I also see distinctions in their attributes, such as:
1) The Father is distinct from the Son in that He is an eternal, infinite Spirit (John 4:23-24) who inhabiteth eternity (Isaiah 57:15); while the Son is the same Spirit inhabiting a finite flesh human body (John 14:7-11; 1 John 4:1-3, 2 John 1:7);
2) The Son is distinct from the Holy Ghost in that the Holy Ghost is the Spirit that He released to the Father in Luke 23:46; and therefore He is the Spirit of Jesus not in flesh (2 Corinthians 3:17);
3) The Father is distinct from the Holy Ghost in that while they are the same, one Spirit (Ephesians 4:4,John 4:23-24, John 7:39), the Father (1st Person who inhabiteth eternity) has never experienced becoming human while the Holy Ghost (who is the after-incarnate Father) has lived a perfect human life (see Luke 23:46); and the Holy Ghost, the Spirit of truth, also proceedeth from the Father (John 15:26). Because the Son is the incarnated Father.
repeated post.
The Spirit (the Holy Ghost) also maketh intercession to the Father (Romans 8:26-27) and is qualified to do so because He has lived a human life and therefore understands humanity.
first thanks for the reply, second, HOG WASH, none of those scriptures shows "Distinction". see JBF I been watching your post carefully, and your understanding of the Godhead is only "FLESHLY" in nature. like the scripture you posted above, which shows no distinction. the best you came up with on any likeness is your 1+1=1. even that fails, because that's in bodies only, but not in spirits. understand your first 1 don't have the same spirit as 2 & 3. did you not read the flesh only reproduce flesh? see how un-scriptual that is following some man. God is a "Spirit".I have done so before, and will do so again, below. I want to say that Father,Son, and Holy Ghost are not separate; although they are distinct.
Distinct; not separate.
the best you came up with on any likeness is your 1+1=1.
not no 1+1=1,
like 1+1=1
as in your 1+1=1,
see what you state 1+1=1,
MEANING HE HAVE A HEAVENLY NATURE, THAT "TOOK ON", OR "TOOK PART" IN HUMAN NATURE. understand the term "took part", and was not a "partaker" of human nature, (which in itself answer the virgin birth).
"distinction in Flesh, but no separation in Spirit,
Listen and understand, it's Partake vs Took Part, and not "take part"I'll ask you what is the difference between "partake" and "take part". And also, how does this "answer" the virgin birth? is this a doctrine that you are in denial of?
Well our Lord Jesus have no human Parents that he, (JESUS, the offspring), was not conceived from, neither a human father, nor mother,
Matthew 1:20 "But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.", now, is the Holy Ghost human? NO, of course not, so there is no HUMAN involved in the conception of that flesh. So that's how I know that the Son was “Given” not conceived
take note of the 3rd. reference. "to invest with preternatural influence", what do preternatural means. It means, "out of the ordinary course of nature; exceptional or abnormal". the meaning here, not in the natural way of conception between a man and a women. BINGO, no sperm nor egg was used,
Do you not believe that Jesus is God and that He created us?
Consider John 1:1-3, John 1:14.
Yes, there is one Lord (Ephesians 4:5, 1 Corinthians 8:6); and He is the Father (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21). However, no one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Spirit of truth (1 Corinthians 12:3).
Make your own conclusion. But don't neglect to read the scriptures that I have referenced; and to consider how they apply together.
1 Corinthians 2:13 (kjv) tells us that the Holy Spirit teaches us when we compare scripture to scripture. This is a biblical hermeneutic.
I have no struggle with my understanding of the Trinity; I feel that I understand it rather perfectly.
The distinction between the Father and the Son is in that the Father inhabits eternity (Isaiah 57:15) and the Son dwells in human flesh. The distinction between the Son and the Spirit is in that the Son is in flesh and the Holy Ghost is a Spirit.
Both the Father and the Holy Ghost are one Spirit (Ephesians 4:4, John 4:23-24, John 7:39). The distinction between them is in that the Holy Ghost has lived a perfect human life and therefore understands humanity (see Luke 23:46; John 4:23-24, John 14:7-11; you may have to think about how these passages apply).
Each member of the Godhead is the same Spirit, the same Lord, and the same God (1 Corinthians 12:4-6).
Consider that there is one Spirit (Ephesians 4:4): the Father (John 4:23-24), the Son (Colossians 1:27, 1 John 5:12) and the Holy Ghost (John 7:39, 2 Timothy 1:14).
There is one Lord (Ephesians 4:5): the Father (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21), the Son (1 Corinthians 8:6, 1 Corinthians 12:3), and the Holy Ghost (2 Corinthians 3:17).
There is one God (Ephesians 4:6, James 2:19): the Father (1 Corinthians 8:6 and others), the Son (Hebrews 1:8-9 and others), and the Holy Ghost (Acts of the Apostles 5:3-4).
This does not amount to nine members in the Trinity; however this information ought to color your understanding of Ephesians 4:4-6.
As it is written,
Tit 2:1, But speak thou the things which become sound doctrine:
so you got two "seed" bumping heads?. lol, lol, lol. my, my, my. lets get educated, Genesis 3:15 "And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel."There was indeed the egg of the virgin that was used; and also the "seed of the woman" (Genesis 3:15); not "the seed of the man". But that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.
MY theology?...lol. since you gave me a theology, ok, it's based on the Spirit insted of the flesh only.. understand, Romans 8:5 "For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit."If your theology is based on concepts that are directly contradicted by scripture, then you need to re-examine your theology so that it fits the testimony of scripture.
not trying to get into your conversation, but you made an interesting statement.You have to be careful. It is true that all 3 Persons of the Trinity somehow represent the one Divine Spirit of God. But the Holy Spirit acts Himself as a distinct Person, and thus, we cannot confuse either the Father or the Son with the Spirit.
How is that so, meaning that the Holy Spirit acts a distinct person?.You have to be careful. It is true that all 3 Persons of the Trinity somehow represent the one Divine Spirit of God. But the Holy Spirit acts Himself as a distinct Person, and thus, we cannot confuse either the Father or the Son with the Spirit.
This is an extensive subject and certainly not as simple as you make it. Then you're admitting you're a modalist?
But the Holy Spirit acts Himself as a distinct Person, and thus, we cannot confuse either the Father or the Son with the Spirit.
Secondly, I distinguish the Holy Spirit from the spirit-hood of God by showing that the separate Personality of the Holy Spirit is distinguished by His appearance in distinct locations in space, in acts within space and time, as opposed to the Father who operates through the agency of either the Holy Spirit or the Son.
she is only the surrogate mother,
so you got two "seed" bumping heads?. lol, lol, lol. my, my, my. lets get educated, Genesis 3:15 "And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel."
do you know what "SEED" mean here? it's the Hebrew word, H2233 זֶרַע zera` (zeh'-rah) n-m.
1. seed.
2. (figuratively) fruit, plant, sowing-time, posterity.
[from H2232]
KJV: X carnally, child, fruitful, seed(-time), sowing- time.
Root(s): H2232
JBF, do you know what posterity means?
I actually agree that the Spirit acts as a distinct Person (John 15:26); while at the same time there is only one Spirit (Ephesians 4:4); which is the Father (John 4:23-24), the Son (Colossians 1:27, 1 John 5:12) and the Holy Ghost (John 7:39, 2 Timothy 1:14).
I do agree that Father, Son, and Holy Ghost are distinct from each other. I think that, if you are willing, you ought to look at everything I have said on the subject in this thread; for I have addressed the distinctiveness of the members of the Godhead in a few posts. See if you agree or disagree with what I have set forth.
I'm late on this train. I'm not going to research all of your statements to figure out what you "mean." ;) No, I'm just dealing with your language here, and questioning whether you're espousing modalism or not. It sounds like you're not. I've been where you are in about 1977-78. I got into a discussion with someone at Christian Research Institute, and I was arguing the same thing you are now! ;)
In principle I agree with you. But now that I'm older and wiser, I realize how important language is, in view of how technical formulas influence how people interpret what you say. If you say the Father and the Son are the Spirit, you will be undoing the Trinitarian formula in the minds of many. And the Trinitarian formula has worked very well for 1500 years! :)
JBF, do you actually red a post before responding?, I guess not. I answered that very question in POST #447 above, Listen to my reply.Nowhere in scripture does it say that Mary is Jesus' *surrogate* mother.
Now you asked , “how does this "answer" the virgin birth?” well the bible answer it for us. Luke 1:35 "And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing, (thing, here means flesh), which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God".
note the word overshadow, it's the Greek word G1982 ἐπισκιάζω episkiazo (ep-ee-skee-ad'-zo) v.
1. to cast a shade upon
2. (by analogy) to envelop in a haze of brilliancy
3. (figuratively) to invest with preternatural influence
take note of the 3rd. reference. "to invest with preternatural influence", what do preternatural means. It means, "out of the ordinary course of nature; exceptional or abnormal". the meaning here, not in the natural way of conception between a man and a women. BINGO, no sperm nor egg was used, Mary was only a surrogate mother “BIRTH mother who only “carried”/generated that flesh for 9 months.
I'm late on this train. I'm not going to research all of your statements to figure out what you "mean."
do you know what, "out of the ordinary course of nature" means? no egg, or sperm was used to conceive the flesh Mary bore.
LOL, LOL, LOL, question where is the sperm, or the egg, that produce Adam? or the seed, that produce all the animals, and ... plants? see how ignorant you answer was.It is also out of the ordinary course of nature for a human to be born from an egg only with no sperm coming from a male.
In the Last Adam, it was in Mary's fillopian tubes.LOL, LOL, LOL, question where is the sperm, or the egg, that produce Adam?