Proper exegesis is words are to be understood in their literal, primary meaning unless something in the context states otherwise.
Nothing in context would lead one to believe that "water" in John 3:5 means water baptism. You are simply accommodating your theological bias. Jesus is talking about being born again from above, which has a spiritual application. Further into Jesus' conversation with Nicodemus, we read 14 - And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of Man be lifted up, 15 that whoever
believes in Him should not perish but have eternal life. 16 For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever
believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life. 17 For God did not send His Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world through Him might be saved. 18 “He who
believes in Him is not condemned; but he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
*In John 7:38-39, we read - "He who
believes in Me, as the Scripture has said,
out of his heart will flow rivers of living water. But this He spoke concerning the Spirit. The Holy Spirit is the source of living water and spiritual cleansing. If "water" is arbitrarily defined as baptism, then we could just as justifiably say, "Out of his heart will flow rivers of living baptism" in John 7:38. If this sounds ridiculous, it is no more so than the idea that water baptism is the source or the means of becoming born again.
In John 7:38-39 we are explicitly told that water is being used figuratively.
Which fits perfectly with water in John 3:5,15,16,18.
But there is nothing in the context of John 3 that water means anything other than literal water or Spirit means anything other than literal Spirit.
Literal water (H20) has no power to cleanse the heart from sin or cause one to become born again. This type of flawed exegesis leads to the heretical doctrine of baptismal regeneration.
A few verse later from v5 we have literal use of water again in John 5:23 in the immediate context.
John 5:23 or John 3:23? Verse 23 is not in the immediate context and it's not merely a few verses later. By the time we get all the way down to verse 23,
Jesus' conversation with Nicodemus is over and Jesus and his disciples have moved on and went out into the Judean countryside, so your argument is moot.
It is purely THEOLOGICAL BIAS, and nothing more, that has you trying to make water something other than water in John 3. You are still trying to change verses to make them conform to your theological bias.
Oh the irony. I properly harmonize scripture with scripture before reaching my conclusion on doctrine. You on the other hand, distort and pervert passages of scripture in an effort to "patch together" your so called gospel plan.
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I did a quick internet search and found the following on proper hermeneutics:
http://www.wlsessays.net/files/LillegardHermeneutics.pdf
(1) From the above link:
"The literal or proper sense of a word or phrase must always be accepted as the intended sense, unlessthere is an absolute necessity for understanding it figuratively. This is a very important principle for which we have the most practical use, not only in the Bible, but universally. The proper sense has the right of way. Otherwise it would be impossible to be sure of anything."
As I have been saying a word is to be taken at its literal face value unless something in the context proves it is being used figuratively. Nothing in the context shows that either "spirit" or "water" is used figuratively so water refers to the literal water of baptism.
Jesus is talking about being born again from above, which is
supernatural and spiritual, so water does not refer to literal water of baptism, yet Roman Catholics, Mormons and other works-salvationists would certainly agree with you and there is a reason for that. After considering the context and properly harmonizing scripture with scripture, "water" in John 3:5 fits perfectly with "water" in John 4:10,14,7:37-39. Jesus uses the term
"believes in Me" and the word
"water" and qualifies what He means by it --
"living water." Jesus uses the term "believes in Him" in the context of John 3:5 and the word "water" not the term "baptism" in John 3:5 and since Jesus
connects "living water" with receiving everlasting life in John 4:10,14; 7:37-39, it makes much more sense that water in John 3:5 is living water, rather than plain ordinary H20, which does not flow through our heart and has no power to cleanse the heart, yet living water does.
If you can make any word in any verse mean whatever you want to, then anyone can do the same thing to any word in any verse they choose and, as the link above says, "it would be impossible to be sure of anything".
Enough with your nonsense. It's time for you to stop fighting against the truth and finally accept the truth.
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There is nothing in the context of Ephesians 5:26 or Titus 3:5 that shows loutron means anything other than a literal laver of water, a baptismal font.
In Ephesians 5:26, we read
"washing of water by the word," not by baptism. Water is also used in the Bible as an emblem of the word of God, and in such uses it is associated with cleansing or washing. Baptism does not avail to cleanse the heart from defilement, but our Lord did say, "Now ye are
clean through the word (not through plain ordinary H20) which I have spoken unto you" (John 15:3).
In Ephesians 5:26, we see
washing of water by the word (not by plain ordinary H20).
Also in 1 Peter 1:22, we read - having been
born again, not of corruptible seed but incorruptible,
through the word of God (not through plain ordinary H20) which lives and abides forever.
You have given no proof the laver is only figurative other than your personal bias against the necessity of water baptism.
John 3:5-------------Spirit++++++++++water>>>>>>>>>>in kingdom
Tts 3:5-----------Holy Ghost+++++++laver of water>>>>>>>saved
I have given proof through properly harmonizing scripture with scripture, but you just don't have eyes to see or ears to hear. The word "washing" in the Strong's Greek Concordance with Vine's Number 3067 - (Loutron) "a bath, a laver" is used
*metaphorically of the Word of God, as the instrument of spiritual cleansing,* Ephesians 5:26; and
Titus 3:5, of the "washing of regeneration." *So once again, to automatically read "baptism" into
John 3:5 simply because it mentions "water" is biased and unwarranted.
Nothing in either context shows that water/laver of water means something figurative.
I can clearly see that you are thoroughly indoctrinated into Campbellism and are unteachable.

Be sure to go back and meditate on post #210.