- Apr 9, 2011
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Hello all,
Recently many of us have been discussing James's statements about works and faith and comparing them to what Paul said. We, as a whole, fail to come to an agreement. If you are like me, you believe they did not agree. Others say they agreed. I can't say why those who say that have come to that conclusion.
But what I want to do now is review the history of what James said and did, and through it I hope you can understand why I don't believe they were of like understanding.
James was the half brother of Jesus. They shared Mary as their mother. I understand Catholics and others don't believe that, but it really isn't too relevant to my point. The bottom line is that James was not a full believer until after Jesus raised.
Why is that pertinent? Well, because it shows he wasn't an apostle in training and wasn't called to be one from the beginning. So he takes a back seat to the apostles (I acknowledge Gal 1:19... Paul indirectly calls him one).
It does not matter much (some, but not much.. ) that James didn't accept him at first. But we must look at his judgments and actions.
The first place to look is the Council at Jerusalem. Some make the mistake of thinking Paul wanted approval and wanted to be there. He didn't. He did willingly go, but took his sweet time getting there. We can about it in Acts 15. He was charged, Peter stood up for him boldly, and James came to a decision.
James's decision was to trouble THEM not (the gentiles). This is Acts 15:19. But in verse 20 James already is placing rules on them. In verse 21 he justifies doing so with the law of Moses.
Furthermore, it's believed that Paul accepted this. To a point, he was satisfied, but he wasn't the one who delivered the verdict and at times didn't live up to it.
There are two things often missed here:.
1. James said they shouldn't trouble "them". That is, the gentiles. He didn't apply this to Jew Christians, as we shall see.
2. He still applied at least a few points of the Law to the gentiles, which Paul never upheld in his teachings, especially on a flesh level.
Now, for those of you who think this was some great decision, I beg to differ. Paul was a strong man of faith and received his orders from Jesus, not James or Peter. He won his case, but had he not, Paul would've been a rebel. He wasn't going to stray from Christ.
But what I take from this incident is that James never abolished the Law from Jew Christians. He said Gentiles weren't bound by it except for a few things. Paul disagreed. He WAS a Jew and he had freedom as did all.
The next incident I want to discuss is what happened in Acts 21. Paul goes to Jersusalem and tells Jemes and the elders what he has done with the gentiles Church. They all praise God..
...But James has a problem.
Acts 21:20-21 KJV
And when they heard it , they glorified the Lord, and said unto him, Thou seest, brother, how many thousands of Jews there are which believe; and they are all zealous of the law:
[21] And they are informed of thee, that thou teachest all the Jews which are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children, neither to walk after the customs.
Now, here we see that James was reporting that these so called believers were zealous for the law and James tells us that Paul was preaching to forsake the law to both the Jews and gentiles.
Now, Paul was asked to purify himself and others, and he did. I do wonder why, but I suppose it's because he didn't see any problem with appeasing.
But here is what we should remember: at this time the Jews who embraced Christ still were embracing the Law (and works). Paul had preached against that for both gentiles and Jews and James was NOT of like mind!
So when you read James 2:17 and when someone refers back to James 1:1, I ask you to remember Acts 15 and acts 21. James shows himself as one clearly clinging to the Law and trying to reconcile them when Paul does not, and speaks against it.
I am not against works. I encourage folks to be good, descent beings. So do Buddhists and Muslims. Even athiests have somewhat of a moral code. But Jesus said it all hinges on him
I like James and I believe he was a Christian. According to history we was matryed. I believed his words were inspired by God. But salvation is not obtained through what he said about works and faith.
Paul and James did agree on one thing:
James 2:18 KJV
Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works.
Romans 4:2 KJV
For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God.
Your works may justify you before man... And that is good, but they don't justify you before God.
Recently many of us have been discussing James's statements about works and faith and comparing them to what Paul said. We, as a whole, fail to come to an agreement. If you are like me, you believe they did not agree. Others say they agreed. I can't say why those who say that have come to that conclusion.
But what I want to do now is review the history of what James said and did, and through it I hope you can understand why I don't believe they were of like understanding.
James was the half brother of Jesus. They shared Mary as their mother. I understand Catholics and others don't believe that, but it really isn't too relevant to my point. The bottom line is that James was not a full believer until after Jesus raised.
Why is that pertinent? Well, because it shows he wasn't an apostle in training and wasn't called to be one from the beginning. So he takes a back seat to the apostles (I acknowledge Gal 1:19... Paul indirectly calls him one).
It does not matter much (some, but not much.. ) that James didn't accept him at first. But we must look at his judgments and actions.
The first place to look is the Council at Jerusalem. Some make the mistake of thinking Paul wanted approval and wanted to be there. He didn't. He did willingly go, but took his sweet time getting there. We can about it in Acts 15. He was charged, Peter stood up for him boldly, and James came to a decision.
James's decision was to trouble THEM not (the gentiles). This is Acts 15:19. But in verse 20 James already is placing rules on them. In verse 21 he justifies doing so with the law of Moses.
Furthermore, it's believed that Paul accepted this. To a point, he was satisfied, but he wasn't the one who delivered the verdict and at times didn't live up to it.
There are two things often missed here:.
1. James said they shouldn't trouble "them". That is, the gentiles. He didn't apply this to Jew Christians, as we shall see.
2. He still applied at least a few points of the Law to the gentiles, which Paul never upheld in his teachings, especially on a flesh level.
Now, for those of you who think this was some great decision, I beg to differ. Paul was a strong man of faith and received his orders from Jesus, not James or Peter. He won his case, but had he not, Paul would've been a rebel. He wasn't going to stray from Christ.
But what I take from this incident is that James never abolished the Law from Jew Christians. He said Gentiles weren't bound by it except for a few things. Paul disagreed. He WAS a Jew and he had freedom as did all.
The next incident I want to discuss is what happened in Acts 21. Paul goes to Jersusalem and tells Jemes and the elders what he has done with the gentiles Church. They all praise God..
...But James has a problem.
Acts 21:20-21 KJV
And when they heard it , they glorified the Lord, and said unto him, Thou seest, brother, how many thousands of Jews there are which believe; and they are all zealous of the law:
[21] And they are informed of thee, that thou teachest all the Jews which are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children, neither to walk after the customs.
Now, here we see that James was reporting that these so called believers were zealous for the law and James tells us that Paul was preaching to forsake the law to both the Jews and gentiles.
Now, Paul was asked to purify himself and others, and he did. I do wonder why, but I suppose it's because he didn't see any problem with appeasing.
But here is what we should remember: at this time the Jews who embraced Christ still were embracing the Law (and works). Paul had preached against that for both gentiles and Jews and James was NOT of like mind!
So when you read James 2:17 and when someone refers back to James 1:1, I ask you to remember Acts 15 and acts 21. James shows himself as one clearly clinging to the Law and trying to reconcile them when Paul does not, and speaks against it.
I am not against works. I encourage folks to be good, descent beings. So do Buddhists and Muslims. Even athiests have somewhat of a moral code. But Jesus said it all hinges on him
I like James and I believe he was a Christian. According to history we was matryed. I believed his words were inspired by God. But salvation is not obtained through what he said about works and faith.
Paul and James did agree on one thing:
James 2:18 KJV
Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works.
Romans 4:2 KJV
For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God.
Your works may justify you before man... And that is good, but they don't justify you before God.