Noah and Abraham were deemed righteous, meaning exactly what?

[David in NJ]

I personally used the word only because you seemed to be correcting Davys post in Post #16 as though it were for Gentiles only, when Davy included both.

You did not say the word"only" but implied it at a post that included both of them

i was being more specific for in Davy's point #5 it seemed as though he was only speaking of the propnecy to Jews but that later God would include the Gentiles

Whereas, from the Apostle Pauls' POV, the Hosea prophecy is speaking of BOTH as the Official meaning of the Prophecy

 

[Verily]

i was being more specific for in Davy's point #5 it seemed as though he was only speaking of the propnecy to Jews but that later God would include the Gentiles

Whereas, from the Apostle Pauls' POV, the Hosea prophecy is speaking of BOTH as the Official meaning of the Prophecy

Davy was always speaking of both in his post that much was clear, you seemed to have missed that which why I said anything at all. No biggy happens to us all at some time or another.

 

[David in NJ]

I personally used the word only because you seemed to be correcting Davys post in Post #16 as though it were for Gentiles only, when Davy included both.

You did not say the word"only" but implied it at a post that included both of them

When i look at scripture, i tend towards being very specific to what the scripture is being very specific too

so, 'implied' was not intended

and this is why chat on the internet is lacking important specific dialogue and we must ask questions to each other and be patient
when waiting for clarity

 

[Verily]

Well, I am officially done here, I hope you all have a good discussion.

 

[David in NJ]

Davy was always speaking of both in his post that much was clear, you seemed to have missed that which why I said anything at all. No biggy happens to us all at some time or another.

when i said Hosea speaks of Gentiles i meant that it was not ethnic specific as the Apostle Paul clarified

NOTE - it is late for me and can easily have a 'hickup' in them

Good Night @Verily

 

[Soyeong]

I have a hard time following you Soyeong forget I asked

Sorry for not being clear. For example, God promised that through Abraham's children all of the nations of the earth will be blessed. This promise is not earned as the result of our works, but rather the only way to receive it is through faith. God's law is how the children of Abraham know how to be blessed (Psalms 119:1-3), so the way that the children of Abraham inherit the promise through faith of being a blessing to the nations is by turning the nations from their wickedness and by teaching them to obey God's law.

 

[David in NJ]

Sorry for not being clear. For example, God promised that through Abraham's children all of the nations of the earth will be blessed. This promise is not earned as the result of our works, but rather the only way to receive it is through faith. God's law is how the children of Abraham know how to be blessed (Psalms 119:1-3), so the way that the children of Abraham inherit the promise through faith of being a blessing to the nations is by turning the nations from their wickedness and by teaching them to obey God's law.

You are correct IF you are speaking of the GOSPEL

You are INCORRECT if you are speaking of the Old Covenant Law

the Word that was God and became flesh, IMMANUEL, replaced the Old Covenant Law with His GOSPEL

JESUS Says: “If you love Me, keep My commandments."

JESUS Says: Likewise He also took the cup after supper, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in My blood, which is shed for you.

 

[Soyeong]

You are correct IF you are speaking of the GOSPEL

You are INCORRECT if you are speaking of the Old Covenant Law

the Word that was God and became flesh, IMMANUEL, replaced the Old Covenant Law with His GOSPEL

JESUS Says: “If you love Me, keep My commandments."

JESUS Says: Likewise He also took the cup after supper, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in My blood, which is shed for you.

In Matthew 4:15-23, Jesus began his ministry with the Gospel message to repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand, which was a light to the Gentiles, and the Mosaic Law was how his audience knew what sin is (Romans 3:20), so repenting from our disobedience to it is a central part of the Gospel of the Kingdom, which is in accordance with Jesus being sent in of the promise to bless us by turning us from our wickedness (Acts 3:25-26), which is the Gospel that was made known in advance to Abraham in accordance with the promise (Galatians 3:8), and which he spread to those in Haran in accordance with the promise (Genesis 12:1-5).

Jesus quoted three times from Deuteronomy in order to defeat the temptations of Satan, including saying that man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that comes from the mouth of God, so he affirmed its authority and was not in disagreement with anything that came from the mouth of God, including what was said in Deuteronomy 5:31-33. In Deuteronomy 4:2, it is a sin to add to or subtract from the Mosaic Law, so Jesus did not do that. Likewise, in Deuteronomy 13, the way that God instructed His people to determine that someone is a false prophet who is not speaking for Him was if they taught against obeying the Mosaic Law, so Jesus did not do that.

In John 14:24, Jesus said that if we love him, then we will obey his teachings and that his teachings were not his own, but that of the Father, so he did not teach his own set of commandments. In John 15:10, Jesus used a parallel statement to equate his commandments with those of the Father. Jesus is God’s word made flesh, so he embodied God’s word by setting a sinless example for us to follow of how to walk in obedience to it and did not teach anything that wasn’t in accordance with it. Jesus did not establish the New Covenant in order to undermine anything that he spent his ministry teaching by word or by example or to cause us to be free to have the same disobedience to the Mosaic Law that caused the New Covenant to be needed in the first place, but rather the New Covenant still involves following the Mosaic Law (Jeremiah 31:33).

 

[ScottA]

Scripture tells us that men like Noah and Abraham were declared righteous by God. What exactly does that mean, given God had not yet communicated His expectations to Moses? Yes, they were totally, obedient to God, but that still begs the question concerning their day-to-day behavior.

The Apostle Paul wrote (2 Corinthians 5:21) “For He made Him who knew no sin . . . .” meaning, for Paul, Jesus never broke a Mosaic commandment, but that also means Jesus never broke a sin of commission OR omission. (Clearly!)

So, did God tell Noah and Abraham they were to act justly, show mercy, and walk humbly? Or did He tell them to love Him and their neighbors?

Blessings.

Those who walked in the ways of the LORD early in the history of His people and before Christ, whom God deemed to be righteous, simply walked according to the path set before them by God.

But this touches on a larger biblical reality. Which is a hard thing to perceive from most places within the world. But those many passages that speak and were written in past tense regarding things only then occurring in the present, reveal the greater truth of what is meant by the saying "before the foundation of the world." In other words--it is not a figure of speech, but the greater reality of the things of God which men have barely touched upon or considered. Even so, it is true. Which then explains something greater about this topic:

That just as the Lamb was literally "slain from before the foundation of the world", and so many other things now written, like we "were crucified with Christ" (past tense)--those saints of old whom are Christ's were also.

Which is to say, that the world is not made up of things happening in 'real time" as many consider to be true, but is rather a daily, "line upon line' unfolding of all that was "before the foundation of the world", now made manifest. Why? As revelation, and as evidence submitted for or against us all, before the Judgement.

 

[David in NJ]

In Matthew 4:15-23, Jesus began his ministry with the Gospel message to repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand, which was a light to the Gentiles, and the Mosaic Law was how his audience knew what sin is (Romans 3:20), so repenting from our disobedience to it is a central part of the Gospel of the Kingdom, which is in accordance with Jesus being sent in of the promise to bless us by turning us from our wickedness (Acts 3:25-26), which is the Gospel that was made known in advance to Abraham in accordance with the promise (Galatians 3:8), and which he spread to those in Haran in accordance with the promise (Genesis 12:1-5).

Jesus quoted three times from Deuteronomy in order to defeat the temptations of Satan, including saying that man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that comes from the mouth of God, so he affirmed its authority and was not in disagreement with anything that came from the mouth of God, including what was said in Deuteronomy 5:31-33. In Deuteronomy 4:2, it is a sin to add to or subtract from the Mosaic Law, so Jesus did not do that. Likewise, in Deuteronomy 13, the way that God instructed His people to determine that someone is a false prophet who is not speaking for Him was if they taught against obeying the Mosaic Law, so Jesus did not do that.

In John 14:24, Jesus said that if we love him, then we will obey his teachings and that his teachings were not his own, but that of the Father, so he did not teach his own set of commandments. In John 15:10, Jesus used a parallel statement to equate his commandments with those of the Father. Jesus is God’s word made flesh, so he embodied God’s word by setting a sinless example for us to follow of how to walk in obedience to it and did not teach anything that wasn’t in accordance with it. Jesus did not establish the New Covenant in order to undermine anything that he spent his ministry teaching by word or by example or to cause us to be free to have the same disobedience to the Mosaic Law that caused the New Covenant to be needed in the first place, but rather the New Covenant still involves following the Mosaic Law (Jeremiah 31:33).

The OT Commandments were given by the LORD = the Word that was God

The LORD Jesus Christ fulfilled the OT Commandments and then HE established the NT Commandments.

The OT Law was no longer needed after MESSIAH fulfilled them
The LORD who gave them in the first place came to earth to establish the His NEW Covenant Commandments found in the Gospel.

For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them.”
no one is justified by the law in the sight of God is evident, for “the just shall live by faith.” - Galatians ch3

 

[Soyeong]

The OT Commandments were given by the LORD = the Word that was God

The LORD Jesus Christ fulfilled the OT Commandments and then HE established the NT Commandments.

The OT Law was no longer needed after MESSIAH fulfilled them
The LORD who gave them in the first place came to earth to establish the His NEW Covenant Commandments found in the Gospel.

Everything that Jesus taught was thoroughly rooted in the OT. In Matthew 5:17-19, Jesus said that he came to fulfill the law in contrast with saying that he came not to abolish it and he warned against relaxing the least part, so you should not interpret it as meaning the same thing as abolishing it or as relaxing the least part of it. Rather, "to fulfill the law" means "to cause God's will (as made known in the law) to be obeyed as it should be" (NAS Greek Lexicon: pleroo), so Jesus fulfilled the law by teaching us how to correctly obey it. According to Galatian 5:14, anyone who has ever loved their neighbor has fulfilled the entire law, so again it refers to correctly obeying it as it should be, moreover, it refers to to something that countless people have done, not to causing love to no longer be needed. Likewise, in Galatians 6:2, bearing one another's burdens fulfills the law of Christ, yet you do not consistently interpret that as causing it to no longer be needed. The New Covenant still involves following God's law (Jeremiah 31:33).

For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them.”
no one is justified by the law in the sight of God is evident, for “the just shall live by faith.” - Galatians ch3

You should not interpret a servant of God in a way that turns him against obeying what He has commanded. In Romans 3:27, Paul contrasted a law of works with a law of faith, in Galatians 3:10-12, he contrasted "works of the law" with the Book of the Law, and in Romans 3:31 and Galatians 3:10-12, he said that our faith upholds the Law of God in contrast with saying that "works of the law" are not of faith, so that phrase does not refer to the Law of God

According to Deuteronomy 27-28, relying on the Book of the Law is the way to be blessed while not relying on it is the way to be cursed, so you should not interpret Galatians 3:10 as Paul quoting from that passage in order the support a point that is arguing against that passage by saying that relying on it is the way to be cursed while not replying on it is the way to be blessed. Rather, not relying on the Book of the Law is the way to be cursed, which is why everyone who relies on works of the law instead come under that curse.

In Galatians 3:10-12, Paul associated a quote from Habakuk 2:4 saying that the righteous shall live by faith with a quote from Leviticus 18:5 that the one who obeys the Law of God will live by it, so the righteous who are living by faith are the same as those who are living in obedience to the Law of God. In Isaiah 51:7, the righteous are those on whose heart is the Law of God, and in 1 John 3:4-7, everyone who is a doer of righteous works in obedience to the Law of God is righteous even as they are righteous, so the righteous who are living by faith does not refer to to a manner of living that is not in obedience to the Law of God. Moreover, Habakkuk 2 does not contrast living by faith with living in obedience to the Law of God, but just the opposite.

God is trustworthy, therefore His instructions are also trustworthy (Psalms 19:7), so the way to trust in God is by obediently trusting in His instructions, it is contradictory for someone to think that we should trust in God, but not His instructions, and the position that God is a giver of untrustworthy instructions that are not of faith denies the trustworthiness and faithfulness of God.

 

[David in NJ]

Everything that Jesus taught was thoroughly rooted in the OT. In Matthew 5:17-19, Jesus said that he came to fulfill the law in contrast with saying that he came not to abolish it and he warned against relaxing the least part, so you should not interpret it as meaning the same thing as abolishing it or as relaxing the least part of it. Rather, "to fulfill the law" means "to cause God's will (as made known in the law) to be obeyed as it should be" (NAS Greek Lexicon: pleroo), so Jesus fulfilled the law by teaching us how to correctly obey it. According to Galatian 5:14, anyone who has ever loved their neighbor has fulfilled the entire law, so again it refers to correctly obeying it as it should be, moreover, it refers to to something that countless people have done, not to causing love to no longer be needed. Likewise, in Galatians 6:2, bearing one another's burdens fulfills the law of Christ, yet you do not consistently interpret that as causing it to no longer be needed. The New Covenant still involves following God's law (Jeremiah 31:33).


You should not interpret a servant of God in a way that turns him against obeying what He has commanded. In Romans 3:27, Paul contrasted a law of works with a law of faith, in Galatians 3:10-12, he contrasted "works of the law" with the Book of the Law, and in Romans 3:31 and Galatians 3:10-12, he said that our faith upholds the Law of God in contrast with saying that "works of the law" are not of faith, so that phrase does not refer to the Law of God

According to Deuteronomy 27-28, relying on the Book of the Law is the way to be blessed while not relying on it is the way to be cursed, so you should not interpret Galatians 3:10 as Paul quoting from that passage in order the support a point that is arguing against that passage by saying that relying on it is the way to be cursed while not replying on it is the way to be blessed. Rather, not relying on the Book of the Law is the way to be cursed, which is why everyone who relies on works of the law instead come under that curse.

In Galatians 3:10-12, Paul associated a quote from Habakuk 2:4 saying that the righteous shall live by faith with a quote from Leviticus 18:5 that the one who obeys the Law of God will live by it, so the righteous who are living by faith are the same as those who are living in obedience to the Law of God. In Isaiah 51:7, the righteous are those on whose heart is the Law of God, and in 1 John 3:4-7, everyone who is a doer of righteous works in obedience to the Law of God is righteous even as they are righteous, so the righteous who are living by faith does not refer to to a manner of living that is not in obedience to the Law of God. Moreover, Habakkuk 2 does not contrast living by faith with living in obedience to the Law of God, but just the opposite.

God is trustworthy, therefore His instructions are also trustworthy (Psalms 19:7), so the way to trust in God is by obediently trusting in His instructions, it is contradictory for someone to think that we should trust in God, but not His instructions, and the position that God is a giver of untrustworthy instructions that are not of faith denies the trustworthiness and faithfulness of God.

God does not want you attempting to keep the law which CANNOT save you.

Stand fast therefore in the liberty by which Christ has made us free, and do not be entangled again with a yoke of bondage. 2Indeed I, Paul, say to you that if you become circumcised, Christ will profit you nothing. And I testify again to every man who becomes circumcised that he is a debtor to keep the whole law. You have become estranged from Christ, you who attempt to be justified by law; you have fallen from grace. For we through the Spirit eagerly wait for the hope of righteousness by faith. For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision avails anything, but faith working through love.

 

[Writer]

Scripture tells us that men like Noah and Abraham were declared righteous by God. What exactly does that mean, given God had not yet communicated His expectations to Moses? Yes, they were totally, obedient to God, but that still begs the question concerning their day-to-day behavior.

The Apostle Paul wrote (2 Corinthians 5:21) “For He made Him who knew no sin . . . .” meaning, for Paul, Jesus never broke a Mosaic commandment, but that also means Jesus never broke a sin of commission OR omission. (Clearly!)

So, did God tell Noah and Abraham they were to act justly, show mercy, and walk humbly? Or did He tell them to love Him and their neighbors?

Blessings.

Righteousness is the condition in which we stand before God. Walking in a manner that is pleasing to God means we understand what is right and wrong and we have chosen the right walk, not the perfect walk, but the right walk. To say NO when we know it's right, regardless of the price. Shadrak, Meshak, and Abednigo said "NO" to bowing down to a king, and kept themselves obedient to God's will and commandments.

To understand righteousness, one must first understand faith. "...for Abraham's faith was reckoned unto him as righteousness". Apart from faith in God's word, one can not be found righteous. “For I say to you that unless your righteousness surpasses that of the scribes and pharisees you will not enter the kingdom of heaven.” Matt 5:20.

Faith is believing God and doing His will. Mathew 7:21 21 “Not everyone who says to Me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father who is in heaven will enter.

Do not missunderstand these scriptures to mean "SELF" righteousness.

 

[Soyeong]

God does not want you attempting to keep the law

All throughout the Bible, God wanted His people to repent and to return to obedience to His law and even Jesus began his ministry with that message. It is absurd to think that God does not want us to refrain from sin. Do you really think that God wants to be disobeyed?

which CANNOT save you.

The fact that we can't earn our salvation as the result of our obedience to God does not mean that we aren't still obligated to obey Him. In Titus 2:11-13, our salvation is described as being trained by grace to do what is godly, righteous, and good, and to renounce doing what is ungodly, so obeying God's law has absolutely nothing to do with trying to earn our salvation, but rather God graciously teaching us to be a doer of it is part of His gift of salvation.

Stand fast therefore in the liberty by which Christ has made us free, and do not be entangled again with a yoke of bondage.

If God saved the Israelites out of bondage in Egypt in order to put us under bondage to His law, then it would be for bondage that God sets us free, however, that verse says that it is for freedom that God sets us free, and God's law is of liberty (Psalms 119:45). In Psalms 119:142, God's law is truth, and in John 8:31-36, it is the transgression of God's law that puts us into bondage while the truth sets us free. So you are not correctly identifying what Paul was speaking against.

2Indeed I, Paul, say to you that if you become circumcised, Christ will profit you nothing. And I testify again to every man who becomes circumcised that he is a debtor to keep the whole law.

It is important to recognize that the Bible can speak against doing something for an incorrect reason without speaking against doing it for the reasons for which God commanded it. If Paul had been speaking against circumcision for any reason, then according to that verse Paul caused Christ to be of no value to Timothy when he had him circumcised right after the Jerusalem Council and Christ is of no value to roughly 80% of the men in the US. In Acts 15:1, men from Judea were wanting to require Gentiles to become circumcised in order to become saved, however, that was never the reason for which God commanded circumcision, so the Jerusalem Council upheld God's law by correctly ruling against requiring circumcision for an incorrect reason. In Exodus 12:48, a Gentile who wanted to eat of the Passover lamb was required to become circumcised, so the Jerusalem Council should not be mistaken as ruling against Gentiles correctly acting in accordance with what God has commanded as if they had the authority to countermand God.

You have become estranged from Christ, you who attempt to be justified by law; you have fallen from grace. For we through the Spirit eagerly wait for the hope of righteousness by faith. For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision avails anything, but faith working through love.

All throughout the Bible, God wanted His people to repent and to return to obedience to His law and even Christ began his ministry with that Gospel message, so it would be absurd to interpret that verses as Paul warning us against obeying God and saying that we will be cut off from Christ if we believe the Gospel of Christ. Likewise, it would be absurd to interpret Psalms 119:29, Exodus 33:13, or Titus 2:11-13 as saying that God is gracious to us by teaching us how to fall from grace.

In Deuteronomy 13, the way that God instructed His people to determine that someone is a false prophet who is not speaking for Him is if they teach against obeying His law. So if you think that Paul is a servant of God and you interpret him as speaking against obeying God's law, then your only option is the conclude as I do that you must have misinterpreted him, but if you insist that your interpretation is correct, then your only option is to conclude that Paul was a false prophet, but either way we should still obey God's law.

 

[Lambano]

Scripture tells us that men like Noah and Abraham were declared righteous by God. What exactly does that mean, given God had not yet communicated His expectations to Moses?

All that means is that God has declared them "in the right". Does God need a reason why He considers them "in the right" with Him?

I'm also wondering how Paul's favorite quotation from Genesis comes into play: "Abraham believed God" (believed God's promise) "and it was accounted to him as righteousness"

 

[Ronald David Bruno]

Scripture tells us that men like Noah and Abraham were declared righteous by God. What exactly does that mean, given God had not yet communicated His expectations to Moses? Yes, they were totally, obedient to God, but that still begs the question concerning their day-to-day behavior.

The Apostle Paul wrote (2 Corinthians 5:21) “For He made Him who knew no sin . . . .” meaning, for Paul, Jesus never broke a Mosaic commandment, but that also means Jesus never broke a sin of commission OR omission. (Clearly!)

So, did God tell Noah and Abraham they were to act justly, show mercy, and walk humbly? Or did He tell them to love Him and their neighbors?

Blessings.

Hebrews 11 tells us they were declared righteous because they had faith in God. It's always been by faith, not works of the Law, nor good deeds. We are to be obedient and love our neighbor; but we have all failed to keep the law - so it could not be based on that. Ultimately we are saved by grace through faith.
We believe and have faith in Christ who fulfilled the Law for us, because we could not and Christ's righteousness is imputed to us.

 

[Davy]

In Matthew 4:15-23, Jesus began his ministry with the Gospel message to repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand, which was a light to the Gentiles, and God's law was how his audience knew what sin is (Romans 3:20), so repenting from our disobedience to it is a central part of the Gospel of the Kingdom, which is in accordance with Jesus being sent in fulfillment of the promise to bless us by turning us from our wickedness (Acts 3:25-26), which is the Gospel of the Kingdom that was made known in advance to Abraham in accordance with the promise (Galatians 3:8), and which he spread to those in Haran in accordance with the promise (Genesis 12:1-5).

In Genesis 18:19, God knew Abraham that he would teach his children and those of his household to walk in God's way by being a doer of righteousness and justice that the Lord might bring to him all that He had promised. In Genesis 26:4-5, God will multiply Abraham's children as the stars in the heaven, to his children He will give all of these lands, and through his children all of the nations of the earth will be blessed because he heard God's voice and guided His charge, commandments, statutes, and laws. In Deuteronomy 30:16, if the children of Abraham will love God with all of their heart by walking in His way in obedience to His commandments, statutes, and laws, then they will live and multiply and God will bless them in the land that they go to posses. So the promise was made to Abraham and brought about because he walked in God's way in obedience to His law, he taught his children and those of his household to do that in accordance with spreading the Gospel of the Kingdom, and because they did that.

In Psalms 119:1-3, God's law is how the children of Abraham know how to be blessed by walking in God's way, and in John 8:39, Jesus said that if they were children of Abraham, then they would be doing the same works as him, so the way that the children of Abraham and multiplied and are a blessing to the nations in accordance with inheriting the promise through faith is by turning the nations from their wickedness and teaching then to do the same works as Abraham by walking in God's way in obedience to His law in accordance with spreading the Gospel of the Kingdom.

But the keeping of the law is not the same idea as imputed righteousness in the Promise by Faith. No one can ever earn God's Promise just through the keeping of the law. Apostle Paul well covered this point too in his Epistles.

 

[Davy]

I am missing the problem or just not catching what you are in his post, maybe he will clarify.

Study the Book of Hosea. God specifically gave the Book of Hosea to and about the ten northern tribes of the "house of Israel". It was not originally given to Gentiles. It wasn't given to Jews of the "house of Judah" either, even though it does talk about them some.

At that time of Hosea the prophet, God had already split old Israel into 2 separate kingdoms (see 1 Kings 11 forward). The "house of Judah" represented the Jews of the tribes of Judah, Benjamin, and Levi at Jerusalem-Judea. But the rest of the tribes, ten, dwelt in the northern holy lands and made up their own "kingdom of Israel" or "house of Israel", and that is who God is speaking to in the Hosea prophecy.

In the Book of Hosea, God is telling the northern ten tribe kingdom that soon they will no longer be a kingdom, and that He is going to scatter them. At the same time, He said that will not happen to the "house of Judah", the southern kingdom. And thus the "kingdom of Judah" remained in the southern land while the ten northern tribes were literally removed, captive to Assyria and the lands of the Medes. The ten tribes thus became 'lost', scattered among the Gentiles, losing their heritage as Israel as God said would happen through His prophet Hosea.

God began the Hosea prophecy with telling Hosea to take a wife of a harlot, and name his children to represent how the ten tribe "house of Israel" had rebelled against Him.

But in final, God said He would no longer call the ten tribes by those names, and the time would come when they would no longer call Him Baali, but Ishi (Friend). And a new covenant would be given them in new lands. This is where Apostle Paul quoted from Hosea to believing Roman Gentiles in Romans 9...

The below name "Osee" is Greek for Hosea. The part below in red is Paul quoting from the Book of Hosea...

Rom 9:24-26
24 Even us, whom He hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?

25 As He saith also in Osee, "I will call them my people, which were not my people; and her beloved, which was not beloved.
26 And it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, 'Ye are not My people'; there shall they be called the children of the living God."
KJV


All the below verses are specifically about the ten tribes of the "house of Israel", until the very last verse in red where Apostle Paul quoted from...

Hosea 2:14-23
14 Therefore, behold, I will allure her, and bring her into the wilderness, and speak comfortably unto her.

15 And I will give her her vineyards from thence, and the valley of Achor for a door of hope: and she shall sing there, as in the days of her youth, and as in the day when she came up out of the land of Egypt.

16 And it shall be at that day, saith the LORD, that thou shalt call Me Ishi; and shalt call Me no more Baali.

17 For I will take away the names of Baalim out of her mouth, and they shall no more be remembered by their name.

18 And in that day will I make a covenant for them with the beasts of the field, and with the fowls of heaven, and with the creeping things of the ground: and I will break the bow and the sword and the battle out of the earth, and will make them to lie down safely.

19 And I will betroth thee unto Me for ever; yea, I will betroth thee unto Me in righteousness, and in judgment, and in lovingkindness, and in mercies.

20 I will even betroth thee unto Me in faithfulness: and thou shalt know the LORD.

21 And it shall come to pass in that day, I will hear, saith the LORD, I will hear the heavens, and they shall hear the earth;

22 And the earth shall hear the corn, and the wine, and the oil; and they shall hear Jezreel.

23 And I will sow her unto Me in the earth; and I will have mercy upon her that had not obtained mercy; and I will say to them which were not My people, 'Thou art My people'; and they shall say, 'Thou art My God.'
KJV

By Paul quoting that to Roman Gentile believers on Christ in the West reveals a fact that many miss about this; it reveals that the majority of the ten lost tribes were scattered to the new lands in the West to become the historical western Christian nations.

And because of the following...

1 Chron 5:1-2
5 Now the sons of Reuben the firstborn of Israel, (for he was the firstborn; but, forasmuch as he defiled his father's bed, his birthright was given unto the sons of Joseph the son of Israel: and the genealogy is not to be reckoned after the birthright.

2 For Judah prevailed above his brethren, and of him came the chief ruler; but the birthright was Joseph's:)
KJV

That "birthright" is not just about the transfer of the flesh father's wealth. It's about God's Birthright of Blessings and Promises, first given through Abraham, and includes The Gospel of Jesus Christ. Like Paul showed in Romans 11, God preserved His election of Grace, and the rest of Israel were spiritually blinded. Thus the Old Testament Patriarchs and prophets knew a lot more of what was going on with God's Promise by Faith. It's just a popular notion by many in the Church to think they were all ignorant about Christ and The Gospel.

John 8:56-58
56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day: and he saw it, and was glad.

57 Then said the Jews unto Him, "Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast Thou seen Abraham?"

58 Jesus said unto them, "Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am."
KJV

 

[Davy]

Something that we inherit is a gift, so while we do not earn the promise as the result of our obedience to God's law, that does not mean that the content of what is promised is not in regard to what will happen if we are doers of God's law.

That's still not correct.

The idea of God's Promise by Faith is a separate idea from law keeping. That is why Apostle Paul said if the Promise were by the law, then it is no more by Promise.

God's Promise by Faith, The Gospel, cannot ever be earned; it is a free Gift given from God by Faith. And righteousness is accounted with that Faith on The Gospel of Jesus Christ, just as it was with Abraham's Faith.

Apostle Paul tells us in 1 Timothy 1 and Romans what God's law is for. It was made for the sinner, the ungodly and unrighteous. And in Galatians 5, Paul taught that IF... we in Christ walk by The Spirit, then we are no longer under the law, and won't be doing those things that are against God's laws.

No flesh-born man can be perfect in keeping God's law, only Lord Jesus Christ was perfect in that while in the flesh. That does not mean all of God's laws are now dead either, for Lord Jesus did not nail all of God's laws on His cross, even as Apostle Paul showed in 1 Timothy 1, 1 Corinthians 6, and Galatians 5. So knowledge of God's law is a good thing, but it is not what saves us.

 

[quietthinker]

Noah and Abraham were deemed righteous, meaning exactly what?​

Their trust in God's promises eclipsed their shortcomings.