I know that you think you know about us but you really don’t….you know what happens when you listen to hearsay…that is basically gossip. If you want to believe gossip, that is entirely up to you.
Let me explain John 1:1 from the Greek…the language in which it was originally written, for the benefit of those who might want to know, rather than be put off by the gossip of determined detractors…they might like to consider the evidence, rather than a superficial reading of a biased translation.
You do know that the Bibles used in Christendom are translated by trinitarians….?
So, in the original Greek, there are two “gods” mentioned in that verse.…the true God, who is identified as “ho theos” and his “divine” son, who is identified as just ”theos”. One tiny little word is missing from the English translation that should have been used to identifiy and recognize the only true God, as separate from his son because failing to use it changes the whole meaning of what John wrote.
”In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.”
Let’s unpack what most people think is a relatively simple statement regarding the trinity…..?
In Greek there are no capitals and no punctuation, which are put in by the English translators.
So first of all we have “In the beginning”….in the beginning of what, we have to ask…because God had no beginning…..he alone is “eternal”. His son is not. (Rev 3:14)
Secondly, “the Word” whom we know is the son of God, was “with” “ho theos”…so the son was “with” his God and Father (Yahweh) in heaven, but is John saying something that none of the apostles or the first Christians believed? Did he say that the Word was “ho theos” (God with a capital “G”? )
If we look up the word “theos“ in Greek, we can see what it means…the primary definition given by Strongs is…
- “a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities”.
This word can also mean….
- “spoken of the only and true God
- refers to the things of God
- his counsels, interests, things due to him
- whatever can in any respect be likened unto God, or resemble him in any way
- God's representative or viceregent
- of magistrates and judges”.
So there goes John 1:1 as a trinity proof text…all anyone had to do was see that there was “ho theos” (Yahweh) and there was “theos” his divine son (Jesus) both mentioned there…the son was “with” his Father….not one God in two persons but two entirely separate beings….and no third person is even mentioned.
The word “theos“ can refer to God’s divinely authorized representatives….even to human judges. (John 10:31-36)
Calling Jesus “theos” never made him God, or in any way equal to his Father….but he was the divine “son of God” as he himself said.
If you go to John 1:18 you will see another verse that challenges the trinity….
”No man has seen God at any time”…..how many people saw Jesus?
Now, what about John 8:58…again what is the original text in Exodus 3:15 with which this statement is supposedly connected.
I have shown this text in the Jewish Tanakh many times but I will include it again for the sake of clarity….
| 13 And Moses said to God, "Behold I come to the children of Israel, and I say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they say to me, 'What is His name?' what shall I say to them?" | | יגוַיֹּ֨אמֶר משֶׁ֜ה אֶל־הָֽאֱלֹהִ֗ים הִנֵּ֨ה אָֽנֹכִ֣י בָא֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ וְאָֽמַרְתִּ֣י לָהֶ֔ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י אֲבֽוֹתֵיכֶ֖ם שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם וְאָֽמְרוּ־לִ֣י מַה־שְּׁמ֔וֹ מָ֥ה אֹמַ֖ר אֲלֵהֶֽם: |
| 14 God said to Moses, "Ehyeh asher ehyeh (I will be what I will be)," and He said, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'Ehyeh (I will be) has sent me to you.'" | | ידוַיֹּ֤אמֶר אֱלֹהִים֙ אֶל־משֶׁ֔ה אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה וַיֹּ֗אמֶר כֹּ֤ה תֹאמַר֙ לִבְנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה שְׁלָחַ֥נִי אֲלֵיכֶֽם: |
| 15 And God said further to Moses, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation.” | | טווַיֹּ֩אמֶר֩ ע֨וֹד אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶל־משֶׁ֗ה כֹּ֣ה תֹאמַר֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ יְהֹוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֣י אֲבֹֽתֵיכֶ֗ם אֱלֹהֵ֨י אַבְרָהָ֜ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִצְחָ֛ק וֵֽאלֹהֵ֥י יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם זֶה־שְּׁמִ֣י לְעֹלָ֔ם וְזֶ֥ה זִכְרִ֖י לְדֹ֥ר דֹּֽר: |
We can see here the translation from the Hebrew, the meaning of God’s name…..
”I Will Be What I Will Be”.
He wasn’t telling them that he existed because they already knew that, but they were about to know him in a way that they had not known him before….he would “be“ or “become” whatever he needed to be, in order to fulfill his purpose in connection with them.
If we go then to John 8:58, we see that the Jews were asking Jesus about his age, not his status as a deity.
“Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad.”
So the Jews said to Him, “You are not yet fifty years old, and have You seen Abraham?”
Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.”
This was a past tense question with which Jesus did not respond with a present tense answer. It makes no sense!…until you see that the word Jesus used is “
eimi” which can mean…”I am, have been, it is I, was”.
So Jesus is saying that “before Abraham was even born I was” in existence.
Can you see again, bias in translation is promoting a doctrine that Jesus never did.
It is ironic that others accuse us of the same thing when all we have done is correct old errors in translation.
We’ve done our research and we can see clearly where Christendom fudges Scripture to paint their own picture. The ones screaming heresy are actually the real heretics.
Make of it what you will. I can defend the NWT as accurate in every instance.
