The 42 months is a “sign” of time.

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Timtofly

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The sign of 7 times and being marked by sin and having to bear one’s sins is shown in several places in scripture. God warned the children of Israel that if they disobeyed His words that 7 times more the curses shall fall upon them than the blessings, and they would have to bear their iniquities during that time. The same sign was shown in Nebuchadnezzar who was given the heart of a beast till 7 times had been fulfilled.
Daniel 4:16
Let his heart be changed from man's, and let a beast's heart be given unto him; and let seven times pass over him.


So you think if anyone were to avenge the death of Abel by Cain they would be punished 7 times? Now that IS backwards.

Cain is of that Wicked one.

1 John 3:12
Not as Cain, who was of that wicked one, and slew his brother. And wherefore slew he him? Because his own works were evil, and his brother's righteous.
The point was that God had not set up the law against killing people. Cain was marked to protect Cain from being killed for killing his brother.

You have to remember that by the time Lamech lived was in Noah's day just before the Flood. The death penalty was instituted after the Flood.

"And surely your blood of your lives will I require; at the hand of every beast will I require it, and at the hand of man; at the hand of every man's brother will I require the life of man. Whoso sheddeth man's blood, by man shall his blood be shed: for in the image of God made he man."

This was not a law when Cain killed Abel, nor prior to the Flood. That sin and wickedness had grown Seventy-seven fold is telling.

Satan was never cast out of the Garden, only Adam and Eve were. Satan was never placed under death. Adam and Eve were in a state of both physical and spiritual death. Satan did not disobey God. Adam disobeyed God.

Yes, Satan caused that serpent to be cursed and lost it's limbs, and obviously the ability to communicate with humans. Unless you think Eve was having hallucinations or talking to Satan in her mind? Not once did it say that Satan's ability to deceive was taken away. That is why Cain was of Satan, because Satan deceived Cain next, after deceiving Eve. And that deception kept going until God destroyed them all with a Flood except 8 people, and then Satan got to Ham, after the Flood. The man of sin at work in every generation.
 

Stewardofthemystery

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That is why the Seals pertain to the church, and the Trumpets pertain to Israel.
The trumpets pertain to the whole world.

Revelation 8:13
And I beheld, and heard an angel flying through the midst of heaven, saying with a loud voice, Woe, woe, woe, to the inhabiters of the earth by reason of the other voices of the trumpet of the three angels, which are yet to sound!
 

Stewardofthemystery

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Neither is the "man of sin". Satan is the beast and "man of sin" that goes in and out of the pit, until placed there in chains for a thousand years.
The man of sin is destroyed at the coming of Christ, Satan is bound for a thousand years.

2 Thessalonians 2:8
And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:
 

Davy

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Many believe the 42 months mentioned in Revelation should be taken literally, like a literal 3 and a half year tribulation period.

But I believe the 42 months is a sign (symbolism) of time which should be “spiritually discerned.”
No, the "forty and two months" of Rev.13:5 and of Rev.11:2 is a LITERAL PERIOD of TIME. It is equal to 1260 days, or 3.5 years, which is 'a half' of the Daniel prophesied "one week" period for the tribulation at the end of this world.

What you are trying to do is CHANGE what is written in God's Word, and it looks like you are doing that on purpose with your bogus speculations out of the blue.
 

Stewardofthemystery

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No, the "forty and two months" of Rev.13:5 and of Rev.11:2 is a LITERAL PERIOD of TIME.

So we know by scripture the start point of the Gentile period, and when the abomination that desolated the temple mount and Jerusalem was in fact set up in 70 a.d.

And we also know the second coming and resurrection of the dead in Christ has not happened yet, as we also know ungodliness has not yet been removed from Israel at the Lords second coming.

So people need to rethink this sign of time because there is no way it can be a taken at face value and as literal when you understand the start point and end point.
 

Timtofly

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The trumpets pertain to the whole world.

Revelation 8:13
And I beheld, and heard an angel flying through the midst of heaven, saying with a loud voice, Woe, woe, woe, to the inhabiters of the earth by reason of the other voices of the trumpet of the three angels, which are yet to sound!
Of course. What effects the church effects the whole world. What effects Israel effects the whole world.

The Seals pertain to the church. The church is removed. The Trumpets pertaining to Israel, and Israel is being removed. God's judgment is not discriminate nor pointed at the church alone, nor Israel alone. I never said that.

Israel has been scattered throughout every nation since 720BC. Why would that not cover the entire earth?
 

Timtofly

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God does not protect murderers.
"And the Lord said unto him, Therefore whosoever slayeth Cain, vengeance shall be taken on him sevenfold. And the Lord set a mark upon Cain, lest any finding him should kill him."

Was God protecting Cain, or any person who sought to kill Cain, for retribution for killing Abel?

The death penalty had not been instated by God. It would not be instated until after the Flood. God protected Cain, just by letting Cain live, instead of God personally killing Cain.

The death of Cain would have only been one fold, Cain for Abel. But the death of Cain would be visited sevenfold. God did not give the go ahead so the sons of God could just start killing each other. God upped the punishment. That did not stop Lamech. In fact, he thought his death would be avenged even more. Then God sent the Flood to remove all the wickedness.

No one ever killed Cain, did they?

Are you saying that if any one ever kills someone, they cannot be forgiven and redeemed by God? Can you yourself condemn people to the LOF? Or do you just assume God cannot protect murderers. Was Paul not protected and converted then? Or you have proof Paul never killed any one? Will Samson not be in heaven? Will King David not be in heaven?

"Whosoever hateth his brother is a murderer: and ye know that no murderer hath eternal life abiding in him."

God does not protect any sin. But God can change a sinners heart.
 

Timtofly

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The man of sin is destroyed at the coming of Christ, Satan is bound for a thousand years.

2 Thessalonians 2:8
And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:

The man of sin is not that Wicked.

"Even him, whose coming is after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders,"

That Wicked is not the man of sin. Satan is. That Wicked is he whose coming is after the working of Satan as the man of sin.

That Wicked may be a person during these 42 months, or the image brought to life. The FP or mouth:

"And there was given unto him a mouth speaking great things and blasphemies; and power was given unto him to continue forty and two months. And he opened his mouth in blasphemy against God, to blaspheme his name, and his tabernacle, and them that dwell in heaven. And it was given unto him to make war with the saints, and to overcome them: and power was given him over all kindreds, and tongues, and nations. And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world."

Or the image:

"And he had power to give life unto the image of the beast, that the image of the beast should both speak, and cause that as many as would not worship the image of the beast should be killed."

The man of sin was alive in Paul's day, as Satan. The one destroyed and cast into the LOF at Armageddon would either be the FP, or the image as that Wicked. Both are destroyed at the same time. The man of sin, Satan is not destroyed, and Paul never said that. You misinterpreted 2 Thessalonians 2.

The man of sin, and son of perdition were already at work in Paul's day, but not revealed. That can only be Satan.
 

Stewardofthemystery

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"And the Lord said unto him, Therefore whosoever slayeth Cain, vengeance shall be taken on him sevenfold. And the Lord set a mark upon Cain, lest any finding him should kill him."
The vengeance was from God on Cain for killing his righteous brother Abel.

How many times can Cain be killed by everyone if he is banished from the face of the earth?

Genesis 4:14
Behold, thou hast driven me out this day from the face of the earth; and from thy face shall I be hid; and I shall be a fugitive and a vagabond in the earth; and it shall come to pass, that every one that findeth me shall slay me.
 

Stewardofthemystery

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The man of sin, and son of perdition were already at work in Paul's day, but not revealed. That can only be Satan.
He is revealed to those who understand this mystery….

Matthew 12:43-45

King James Version

43 When the unclean spirit is gone out of a man, he walketh through dry places, seeking rest, and findeth none.
44 Then he saith, I will return into my house from whence I came out; and when he is come, he findeth it empty, swept, and garnished.
45 Then goeth he, and taketh with himself seven other spirits more wicked than himself, and they enter in and dwell there: and the last state of that man is worse than the first. Even so shall it be also unto this wicked generation.
 

Douggg

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No, the 42 months is not a sign. The 42 months are a literal period of time right before the day Jesus returns.


time frames 4.jpg
 

Stewardofthemystery

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No, the 42 months is not a sign. The 42 months are a literal period of time right before the day Jesus returns.


View attachment 50567
People taking the time as literal is why many do not believe the AOD has already taken place yet with the destruction of the Temple Mount Jesus and His apostles were looking at with their own eyes.
 

Ronald Nolette

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Many believe the 42 months mentioned in Revelation should be taken literally, like a literal 3 and a half year tribulation period.

But I believe the 42 months is a sign (symbolism) of time which should be “spiritually discerned.”

Let’s look at why this 42 months, or 1,260 days is not a literal 3 and half years, but is rather symbolic of time.

In Revelation 12:5-6 we read “5 And she brought forth a man child, who was to rule all nations with a rod of iron: and her child was caught up unto God, and to his throne.
6 And the woman fled into the wilderness, where she hath a place prepared of God, that they should feed her there a thousand two hundred and threescore days.” (1,260 days or 42 months)

Most would agree this verse is speaking about the birth of Jesus Christ, and his being caught up to God, and the woman being the sign of the spiritual Israel, because these are those who “ have the testimony of Jesus Christ” as seen in Rev. 12:17.

But no matter who you believe the woman represents, the timing of when she fled into the wilderness is shown to be right after the “man-child” was caught up to God and to His throne.”

This time is confirmed again here in Revelation 12:14 “And to the woman were given two wings of a great eagle, that she might fly into the wilderness, into her place, where she is nourished for a time, times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent.”

So now we have this same 1,260 days shown as “time, times, and half a time” which is also mentioned in the book of Daniel.

This prophecy given to Daniel had to do with “the days of vengeance on the Jews” and ending with the “time of trouble such as the world has never seen” (Daniel 12:1) Which Jesus also mentioned in Matthew 24:21.

And this time of 1,260 days was to begin with the destruction of the Temple, and this time period would also run 1335 days all the way to the redemption of Gods people as Daniel was told in verse 1 “at that time thy people shall be delivered, everyone that shall be found written in the book of Life.”

And then there is mention of the resurrection as mentioned here in Daniel 12:2 “2 And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.”

Then this time is again confirmed in Daniel 12:7 “7 And I heard the man clothed in linen, which was upon the waters of the river, when he held up his right hand and his left hand unto heaven, and sware by him that liveth for ever that it shall be for a time, times, and an half; and when he shall have accomplished to scatter the power of the holy people, all these things shall be finished.”

So according to the word of the Lord, all those things mentioned to Daniel shall be finished in that same time period.

Now let’s look at how this time period is also shown as the same amount of time given to the fullness of the Gentiles.

Jesus spoke of “after the tribulation of those days” in accordance with the tribulation period of the Jews and also for “the fullness of the Gentiles.” ( “that all things which are written may be fulfilled” Luke 21:22)

In Luke 21:24 Jesus says “ And they(the Jews) shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until “the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.”

So how long was the times of the Gentiles? Well, were given that time as well in scripture.

Revelation 11:2 “But the court which is without the temple leave out, and measure it not; for it is given unto the Gentiles: and the holy city shall they tread under foot forty and two months.
This confirms the Gentile ingathering periods fulness, the tribulation of those days, and all those things being fulfilled as listed in the book of Daniel could not possibly be a literal 42 months, or 1,260 days, but rather it is a sign of time.

We also know by Paul’s words that this time of the Gentiles being fulfilled would be marked by ungodliness being removed from Jacob.

Romans 11:25 “For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.”

So we know by scripture the start point of the Gentile period, and when the abomination that desolated the temple mount and Jerusalem was in fact set up in 70 a.d.

And we also know the second coming and resurrection of the dead in Christ has not happened yet, as we also know ungodliness has not yet been removed from Israel at the Lords second coming.

So people need to rethink this sign of time because there is no way it can be a taken at face value and as literal when you understand the start point and end point.


Just more food for thought, Peace.
Well you and dozens of others have declared that this 3 1/2 years must be "spiritually discerned". Nearly all of the others disagree with you. why should we accept your opinion more than theirs or over what God simply said.

If you do not wish to take God literally, why should we take you literally and not reinterpret your words based on "spiritually discerning them"?
 

Stewardofthemystery

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Well you and dozens of others have declared that this 3 1/2 years must be "spiritually discerned". Nearly all of the others disagree with you. why should we accept your opinion more than theirs or over what God simply said.

If you do not wish to take God literally, why should we take you literally and not reinterpret your words based on "spiritually discerning them"?
There is a good reason why this time needs to be spiritually discerned as I laid out in my OP. Once you know the start point by the words of God and the end point of this time then one will conclude it cannot possibly a literal 3 and a half years.
 

Ronald Nolette

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There is a good reason why this time needs to be spiritually discerned as I laid out in my OP. Once you know the start point by the words of God and the end point of this time then one will conclude it cannot possibly a literal 3 and a half years.
Well me and untold milli0ons accept a literal 3 1/2 years as it fits perfectly with Daniel 9 and the 70th week and the midst of the 70th week.

also Matt. 24 and the abomination of desolation and many OT prophecies.

Also given this is for the children of Israel to prepare the surviving nation to accept Jesus as Messiah, it is most definitely a literal 1260 days or time, times and 1/2 time.

But I will read you ropening statement, to see why you reject it coming from God as literal when the super majority of believers do!
 

Ronald Nolette

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Most would agree this verse is speaking about the birth of Jesus Christ, and his being caught up to God, and the woman being the sign of the spiritual Israel, because these are those who “ have the testimony of Jesus Christ” as seen in Rev. 12:17.
This is actual Israel, the church did not birth Jesus but Jesus birthed the church.
 

Ronald Nolette

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But no matter who you believe the woman represents, the timing of when she fled into the wilderness is shown to be right after the “man-child” was caught up to God and to His throne.”
Not really, prophetic passages can have a long time span between verses. ONe example:

Isaiah 9:6-7

King James Version

6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.
7 Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth even for ever. The zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this.

Using you rlogic as you applied to Rev. 12-- Jesus should have started ruling during His Incarnation.
 

Ronald Nolette

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In Luke 21:24 Jesus says “ And they(the Jews) shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until “the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.”

So how long was the times of the Gentiles? Well, were given that time as well in scripture.

Revelation 11:2 “But the court which is without the temple leave out, and measure it not; for it is given unto the Gentiles: and the holy city shall they tread under foot forty and two months.
This confirms the Gentile ingathering periods fulness, the tribulation of those days, and all those things being fulfilled as listed in the book of Daniel could not possibly be a literal 42 months, or 1,260 days, but rather it is a sign of time.

We also know by Paul’s words that this time of the Gentiles being fulfilled would be marked by ungodliness being removed from Jacob.

Romans 11:25 “For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.”

So we know by scripture the start point of the Gentile period, and when the abomination that desolated the temple mount and Jerusalem was in fact set up in 70 a.d.
You have the times of the gentiles starting 7 centuries too late!

The time of the gentiles started with Nebuchadnezzar (the first beast in Dan.7 and the head of god in Dan. 2) it ends with the return of Jesus.

There was no abomination of desolation established in 70 AD. The temple was destroyed and not an abomination established in the Ohly place!

The 42 months is 1260 days, the seond half of the tribulation when the AOD is established in the third temple at mid point of the 70th week of Daniel! It corresponds to 42 months and time, times and half a time.

YOu need to look up fulness. It is pleroma which means the full number. Based on it suse, it appears God has a predetermined number of Gentiles to come in and when that number is reached, the fulness of the Gentiles has come in. it is an ongoing process.


I recommend you read this manuscript. It is one of many that deals with the end times and shows and answers your interpretations of times and shows why they are literal. There are many more I can recommend.
 

Davy

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So we know by scripture the start point of the Gentile period, and when the abomination that desolated the temple mount and Jerusalem was in fact set up in 70 a.d.
That's false doctrine above.

The "abomination of desolation" event that Jesus warned about in His Olive discourse has NEVER taken place to this day. It is prophesied to occur at the end of this world, for the time of "great tribulation" which is our near future.