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Only a very few relatively late copies (sometimes only a single source) exist of the Ante-Nicene Fathers. The copies of copies by trinitarian copyists ending in the single (or very few) copy existing today are filled with additions, changes, etc. as even trinitarian editors admit. Nevertheless, non-trinitarian quotes have been left in places. So, which do you think are actually the words of the early writer? Would the many trinitarian copyists during the centuries (where the Roman Church would
severely punish anyone who denied the trinity) actually add the non-trinitarian quotes in the ancient writers works, or would they rather add trinitarian quotes?
John 1:1c
Even the very trinitarian Greek expert,
W. E. Vine, (although, for obvious reasons, he chooses not to accept it as the proper
interpretation) admits that the literal translation of John 1:1c is: "
a god was the Word". - p. 490,
An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, Thomas Nelson, Inc., 1983 printing.
Equally trinitarian Professor
C. H. Dodd, director of the
New English Bible project, also admits this is a proper literal translation:
"A possible translation [for John 1:1c] ... would be, `The Word was
a god.' As a word-for-word translation
it cannot be faulted." - Technical Papers for the Bible Translator, vol. 28, Jan. 1977.
The reason Prof. Dodd still rejects "a god" as the actual meaning intended by John is simply because it upsets his trinitarian interpretations of John's Gospel! - See WT, p. 28, Oct. 15, 1993.
Rev. J. W. Wenham wrote in his
The Elements of New Testament Greek: “Therefore as far as grammar alone is concerned, such a sentence could be printed:
θεὸς ἐστιν ὁ λόγος, which would mean either,
‘The Word is a god’, or, 'The Word is the god’.” - p. 35, Cambridge University Press, 1965.
(Of course, if you
carefully examine this study, you will find that the grammar really shows that ‘The Word is [or “was” in John 1:1c]
a god’ is what John intended.)
Trinitarian NT scholar
Prof. Murray J. Harris also admits that grammatically John 1:1c may be properly translated, ‘the Word was
a god,’ but his trinitarian bias makes him claim that “John’s monotheism” will not allow such an interpretation. - p. 60,
Jesus as God, Baker Book House, 1992.
However, his acknowledgment of the use of “god” for men at John 10:34-36 and the use of “god/gods” for angels, judges, and other men in the Hebrew OT Scriptures contradicts his Trinitarian interpretation above. - p. 202.
Trinitarian
Dr. Robert Young admits that a more
literal translation of John 1:1c is "and
a God
[2] (i.e. a Divine Being) was the Word" - p. 54, (`New Covenant' section),
Young's Concise Critical Bible Commentary, Baker Book House, 1977 printing.
Highly respected trinitarian scholar, author, and Bible translator,
Dr. William Barclay wrote: "You could translate [John 1:1c],
so far as the Greek goes: `the Word was
a God'; but it
seems obvious that this is so much
against the whole of the rest of the New Testament that it is wrong." - p. 205,
Ever yours, edited by C. L. Rawlins, Labarum Publ., 1985.
Professor Jason David BeDuhn tells us, “Grammatically, John 1:1 is not a difficult verse to translate. It follows familiar, ordinary structures of Greek expression. A lexical (‘interlinear’) translation of the controversial clause would read: ‘
And a god was the Word.’ A minimal literal (‘formal equivalence’) translation would rearrange the word order to match proper English expression: ‘
And the Word was a god.’ The preponderance of evidence, from Greek grammar, from literary context, and from cultural environment, supports this translation….” - p. 132,
Truth in Translation, University Press of America, 2003.
And as we saw above,
John J. McKenzie, S. J., writes in his
Dictionary of the Bible: "Jn 1:1 should rigorously be translated `the word was with the God (equals the Father), and the word was
a divine being.'" - p. 317, Macmillan Publishing Co., Inc., 1965, published with Catholic Nihil Obstat and Imprimatur.
12 You see, in ancient times many of God's servants had no qualms about using the word "god" or "gods" for godly men, kings, judges, and even angels.
Yes, as trinitarian scholar Dr. Robert Young tells us in the preface to
Young's Analytical Concordance in the section entitled "Hints and Helps to Bible Interpretation":
"65. God—is used of
any one (professedly) MIGHTY, whether truly so or not, and is applied not only to the true God, but to false gods, Magistrates,
judges, angels, prophets, etc., e.g.
Ex. 7:1; ...
John 1:1; 10:33, 34, 35; 20:28 ...." - Eerdmans Publ., 1978.
Notice how John 1:1 has been listed as an example of "God" (or "god") being applied to someone other than the true God (as in the case of "judges, angels, prophets, etc."). Dr. Young also specifically tells us that John 1:1 is literally "and
a God (i.e.
a Divine Being) was the Word." p. 54,
Young's Concise Critical Bible Commentary. Certainly a trinitarian scholar such as Dr. Young would interpret John 1:1c to mean "the Word was the true God" if he could honestly do so! Obviously he felt there was something wrong with that interpretation.
New Testament Greek expert Joseph H. Thayer also defined
theos:
"[
Theos] is used of whatever can in
any respect be
likened to God or resembles him in
any way: Hebraistically, i.q. God's
representative or vicegerent, of magistrates and judges." - p. 288, Thayer's
Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament.
Anyone who honestly examines the study of John's grammar and usage as pointed out in the following links will have to admit that "a god" is not only possible, but is certain.
John 1:1c Primer - For Grammatical Rules That Supposedly "Prove" the Trinity
Examining the Trinity