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No verse says what you claim.
Rebuking is not a requirement. Jesus did not rebuke the Pharisees who wanted to stone him. Does that mean their claim that he was not a deity is correct?
Am I remembering correcting, that Watchtower teaching is that Michael took the persona of Jesus for the purpose of earthly life, and offering his sacrifice, and then resumed being Michael having returned to heaven? Or am I mistaken about that?
Much love!
They got the michael thing from SDA.I've just asked @Aunty Jane , let's see what she says.
If they no longer teach that, I'd have to wonder why not? And why did they ever?
Much love!
To setup a Strawman.Since the word we use for worship has such a broad definition in Greek, why are there arguments regarding what it means when it is a broad reference.
You mean the one that says the throne is OF God (o') and people want to pretend prepositions are verbs (such as is)?Really, see the Hebrews chapter.
I've come to understand those claims to be specious, and yes, to me it makes the speaker sound like they are just parroting other's denigrations.The old 45,000 Christian denominations. I spoke with one of the authors of the Encylopedia. They used a sociality definition for denominations. This exageration makes one look like htey have no idea what they are talking about. Each of the branch offices and congerations will be counted as a seperate denomination by they source.
Which verse do you have in mind?You mean the one that says the throne is OF God (o') and people want to pretend prepositions are verbs (such as is)?
Evidence you got nothing is you are referring to entire chapters when all I need is a simple verse that says Jesus was worshipped because he is a deity. That is the claim and that is the standard of evidence.John 8
Easy-to-Read Version
Yet, 3 men were worshipped: Daniel, Nebuchanazeer, and David.The angels know this.
Wouldn't Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1 count? I used to be skeptical of this, but Daniel Wallace convinced me otherwise. (“Consequently, in Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1 we are compelled to recognize that, on a grammatical level, a heavy burden of proof rests with the one who wishes to deny that 'God and Savior' refers to one person, Jesus Christ.” Sharp Redivivus? - A Reexamination of the Granville Sharp Rule | Bible.org )Evidence you got nothing is you are referring to entire chapters when all I need is a simple verse that says Jesus was worshipped because he is a deity. That is the claim and that is the standard of evidence.
Not having that, proponents throw a lot of stuff at the wall and hope something sticks. I've been told many times such platitudes as "the whole Bible points to it." Yet, not one actual verse in sight.
If I may address this…..After "Jesus" "returned to heaven", Michael returned to being himself, ergo, no more Jesus. But then according to what I've been taught by JW's, there never really was a "Jesus", only the persona adopted by Michael for the purpose of offering a sacrificial death.
There's a problem with that:
Revelation 1:5 KJV
And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,
Jesus, from heaven, the faithful witness. No, it's not Michael.
On the contrary, the very fact that your best arguments relies on such ambiguous text means there is simply no verse that makes the claim.Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1 we are compelled to recognize that, on a grammatical level, a heavy burden of proof rests with the one who wishes to deny that 'God and Savior' refers to one person, Jesus Christ.”
But Wallace's point is that these two verses are not ambiguous, but are the authors' expression of the deity of Christ. Read his piece, and you'll see he is simply knocking down the arguments of those deniers of Christ's deity who mistakenly see in these verses as references to two different persons.On the contrary, the very fact that your best arguments relies on such ambiguous text means there is simply no verse that makes the claim.
I have no doubt anyone can copy and paste an authoritative sounding case study in Eisegesis. Yet, it remains that no exegesis text exists. Compare to the proof text that man was Created on a certain day.
In all the Trinitarian disputes I've seen, this is always the heart of the matter. "3 cannot be 1! 1 cannot be 3!" In humans from the line of Adam, I'd agree. But God is transcendant, and not to be defined according to those whom He created.How can God have a God whom he worships even in heaven?
Jesus is called an “apostle” (Heb 3:1) Can God be his own apostle?
He is called our “High Priest”…can God be his own High Priest?
He is called “God’s holy servant” (Acts 4:27,30) Can God be his own servant?