What are the main doctrinal differences between Jehovah's Witnesses and mainstream Christianity?

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op: Main differences JW and Christianity?:

Christianity . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. JW

1) Jesus Is God .................................................... Jesus is a god

2) Salvation ........................................................... enter a god's kingdom
Grace Through faith In Jesus (God) ........... by works

Since Incorrect, then it is Totally Useless to 'discuss' Any other doctrines, eh?

And, obeying God ( The LORD Jesus Christ ) in Romans 16:17?

Amen.
 

David in NJ

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op: Main differences JW and Christianity?:

Christianity . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. JW

1) Jesus Is God .................................................... Jesus is a god

2) Salvation ........................................................... enter a god's kingdom
Grace Through faith In Jesus (God) ........... by works

Since Incorrect, then it is Totally Useless to 'discuss' Any other doctrines, eh?

And, obeying God ( The LORD Jesus Christ ) in Romans 16:17?

Amen.
Keep going Brother = there are even more disparities.

and Thank You
 

Aunty Jane

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@RedFan.....just to add to this point, you said....
“What I said was "there is just no way to conclude that Jesus declared “I WILL BE.” So his audience must have favored the “I AM” interpretation of Exodus 3:14."

In my research it was interesting to note that John 8:58, where Jesus was saying that he ‘existed before Abraham’, his expression was in answer to the Jew’s question about his age...
“the Jews said to him: “You are not yet 50 years old, and still you have seen Abraham?”
His answer was in direct response to that question....

The action expressed by the Greek verb ei·miʹ started “before Abraham came into existence” and was still in progress. It is therefore properly translated “I have been” rather than “I am,” and a number of ancient and modern translations use wording similar to “I have been.” In fact, at John 14:9, the same form of the Greek verb ei·miʹ is used to render Jesus’ words: “Even after I have been with you men for such a long time, Philip, have you not come to know me?” Most translations use a similar wording, showing that depending on context there is no valid grammatical objection to rendering ei·miʹ as “have been.”

So John 8:58 should read....contextually and grammatically....
“Most truly I say to you, before Abraham came into existence, I have been.”
 

RedFan

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@RedFan.....just to add to this point, you said....
“What I said was "there is just no way to conclude that Jesus declared “I WILL BE.” So his audience must have favored the “I AM” interpretation of Exodus 3:14."

In my research it was interesting to note that John 8:58, where Jesus was saying that he ‘existed before Abraham’, his expression was in answer to the Jew’s question about his age...
“the Jews said to him: “You are not yet 50 years old, and still you have seen Abraham?”
His answer was in direct response to that question....

The action expressed by the Greek verb ei·miʹ started “before Abraham came into existence” and was still in progress. It is therefore properly translated “I have been” rather than “I am,” and a number of ancient and modern translations use wording similar to “I have been.” In fact, at John 14:9, the same form of the Greek verb ei·miʹ is used to render Jesus’ words: “Even after I have been with you men for such a long time, Philip, have you not come to know me?” Most translations use a similar wording, showing that depending on context there is no valid grammatical objection to rendering ei·miʹ as “have been.”

So John 8:58 should read....contextually and grammatically....
“Most truly I say to you, before Abraham came into existence, I have been.”
That's certainly the NWT view of how ei-mi should be translated here. There are several dozen instances of ei-mi in the New Testament, but I believe almost all of them are translated by the NWT as "I am" rather than "I have been." Am I right about this?
 

David in NJ

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@RedFan and @Aunty Jane

Genesis is the KEY to all Scripture that follows.

Beginning in chapter 1 the THREE are there = "Let Us make man in Our image according to Our likeness."

@RedFan asked me about Exodus 7:1

How many Elohim(symbolically) were present to petition Pharoah??? = 3

How many Elohim appeared to Abraham and Sarah??? = 3

How many men did ELOHIM choose to represent Himself in Genesis = 3
 
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Aunty Jane

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op: Main differences JW and Christianity?:

Christianity . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. JW

1) Jesus Is God .................................................... Jesus is a god

2) Salvation ........................................................... enter a god's kingdom
Grace Through faith In Jesus (God) ........... by works

Since Incorrect, then it is Totally Useless to 'discuss' Any other doctrines, eh?

And, obeying God ( The LORD Jesus Christ ) in Romans 16:17?

Amen.
Let me just correct you there.....since the points you posted are not correct.....although I am sure that no amount of correcting your perceptions will remove the prejudice so evident in the posts here....

1) We do not view Jesus as “a god” at all. We view Jesus as “the son of God” which is what he called himself.
John 10:34-36....when the Jews accused him of blasphemy....
Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “You are gods”’? 35 If he called ‘gods’ those against whom the word of God came—and yet the scripture cannot be nullified— 36 do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’?

If Yahweh himself called his human judges “gods“ then the word doesn’t mean what you think it does.
Never once did Jesus ever say that he was “God” (capital “G”)....that would have been blasphemy and a breach of the first Commandment.

Context should dictate how any passage of scripture is translated.....
When the Greek language had no way to distinguish a nameless god from any other “divine mighty one” (all their gods had names) as in the case of the Jews who had ceased to utter the divine name due to their own superstition, the only way to single him out was to use the definite article (“ho”). This is particularly true when two “gods” (divine mighty ones) are mentioned in the same verse such as in John 1:1. This verse reads differently in Greek to how it is translated into English by trinitarians......a deliberate omission is made to confuse the two “gods” mention in that verse.

“Theos” in Greek can refer to any ‘god or goddess or even to humans who were given divine authority’.
So to refer to Jesus as “theos” (a god) does not make him “ho theos” (THE God or Yahweh) It makes him the divine son of God.....nothing in scripture says any different.

2) No one can earn salvation by works. And yet if we have no works to back up our faith, it is dead.

James 2:17-20....
“...faith by itself, without works, is dead.
18 Nevertheless, someone will say: “You have faith, and I have works. Show me your faith without the works, and I will show you my faith by my works.” 19 You believe that there is one God, do you? You are doing quite well. And yet the demons believe and shudder. 20 But do you care to know, O empty man, that faith without works is useless?”


Does the Bible contradict itself?

Those who post in opposition should at least get their facts straight....and they never will by frequenting the sites promoted by our opposers who have an ax to grind. That would be like asking the Pharisees what they thought of Jesus.....
 

Aunty Jane

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That's certainly the NWT view of how ei-mi should be translated here. There are several dozen instances of ei-mi in the New Testament, but I believe almost all of them are translated by the NWT as "I am" rather than "I have been." Am I right about this?
Context always dictates how any verse should be translated. Jesus said “I am” many times without once referring to himself as a deity. In the case of John 8:58, there is no connection with Ex 3:13-15.....unless you are a trinitarian. Jesus wasn’t a trinitarian and never spoke as his Father’s equal.
 

DJT_47

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I cannot count the number of times I have explained the full import of this scripture....misinterpreted in many English translations so as to infer the complete opposite of what is actually said.

Let’s see what the original words of this scripture are saying....

I’ll quote from the ESV....a bit at a time....
“5 Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, 6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped”

So Christ existed in God’s “form”......what “form” does God have? John 4:24 says that “God is a spirit”...does a spirit have a “form”...apparently they do, but these are not visible to human eyes. As heaven is full of spirit creatures who are all in the same spirit “form”, we can take from that scripture that Jesus was also a “spirit” before he was “sent” to earth as a human.
Also he “did NOT count equality with God as a thing to be grasped” (Strongs renders that as something “seized by robbery”) so this is something Christ never did...to rob his God and Father of his deity by claiming to be his equal.

“7 but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men.”

Can God really be his own servant? Did he ever need to become a human, lower than his own angels, in order to redeem mankind? If you think that is what this is saying, then you have no idea of the mechanics of redemption. God’s law demanded ‘like for like’....to redeem someone out of a debt that they incurred or inherited, the exact price had to be paid. In order for Adam’s sin to be compensated for, a “sinless life” had to be offered for the “sinless life” that Adam took from his children. All Jesus needed to be was “sinless”...and this is why he needed to come from heaven, since all of Adam’s descendants were now sinful. He never needed to be God to do that…in fact it was impossible for an immortal God to die.

“8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.”

“Obedient to the point of death”....to whom was Christ obedient? Himself?

“9 Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name”

God “highly exalted” himself? And bestowed on himself “a name that is above” the one he already had?
His name is already the highest in existence. (Psalm 83:18)

“10 so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.”

So “in the name of Jesus every knee should bow”…..is bending the knee, or bowing, necessarily worship? Or is it a mark of respect often given to royalty?
And to “confess that Jesus is Lord”…..is that to acknowledge him as “God” or is that also a title of respect?
Sarah called Abraham “Lord”…..was he her God? (Gen 18:12; 1 Peter 3:6)

And Christ’s whole mission that he carried out so faithfully, was to whose glory? His own? No!…all glory went to his God and Father.

Have you ever really read what this scripture is actually saying? Or do you assume to just read over its very clear truth, without relying on the entirety of scripture to furnish your beliefs.

Those who disregard the truth to accept old falsehoods, are blinded by a counterfeit Christianity, created by God’s enemy…..Jesus warned us that this apostasy would take place…but instead of understanding that this happened many centuries ago, and has infiltrated man’s thinking down to this ‘time of the end’, they continue to believe the lies. The seeds of that apostasy were not sown recently. The prophet Daniel foretold that at “the time of the end” God would “cleanse and refine” a people (Daniel 12:4, 9-10) who would stand out as different…..totally separated from the “weeds” who have been in existence for centuries, corrupting everything Christ taught.

Read God’s word as it explains itself, not adding foreign concepts grafted into scripture by a corrupt church, in the centuries following the death of the apostles.

Nothing in a world ruled by the devil, is as it appears…(1 John 5:19)
Just for clarity, John 4:24 is a bad translation as in the KJV. Its not "God is a spirit", but rather God is spirit. Big difference. God is spirit means he is the life force, energy, the breathe of life, etc., as opposed to a spirit. Look at other translations as well as the interlinear. Even the new KJV doesn't add "a". Only a few translations gave added the word "a".
 

Aunty Jane

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@RedFan and @Aunty Jane

Genesis is the KEY to all Scripture that follows.

Beginning in chapter 1 the THREE are there.

@RedFan asked me about Exodus 7:1
How many Elohim appeared to Abraham and Sarah??? = 3

How many Elohim(symbolically) were present to petition Pharoah??? = 3

How many men did ELOHIM choose to represent Himself in Genesis = 3
So three always means a trinity....right? Like water can be in three different presentations?....but it’s still water.....water isn’t God though, is it? And a rope with three strands is stronger than two, but that isn’t God either. Three is a popular number in the Bible but it never once describes God as three different individuals inhabiting one entity....who can be in three different places at the same time, and talk to one another. Only one prays to the Father, but never to the Holy Spirit, and the holy spirit is never mentioned as one who should be worshipped. You can blaspheme the Father or the son, but not the holy spirit yet no one seems to know why, if they are all equal parts of one God.

The holy spirit was only given to Jesus at his baptism, so apparently he was not able to perform miracles without it.....so if he was God, where was the holy spirit whilst he was growing to manhood for 30 years?

Jesus was able to pass holy spirit onto his apostles, who in turn could pass it on to others.....only then were they able to perform miracles. So were they passing on a person?

The Bible speaks freely of Father, son and holy spirit .....But never once does it say that these three are equal parts of Almighty God. These three are mentioned because God the Father is the originator of the other two. The Father is the only eternal being....his son was created, (Rev 3:14) and God’s spirit is not a person but the administration of his power to whomever and wherever he deems it necessary.

If “no man has seen God at any time” (as stated by the apostle John, in John 1:18, and he should know) then “God” has never been seen by any man. In the examples you furnish, apart from the Genesis creation account, God was seen by humans. Not to mention the thousands who saw Jesus......Does the Bible contradict itself?

In creation we know from the scriptures that God’s spirit provided the power......and the prehuman Jesus provided assistance as the agency “through whom” the creation of all things came about. (Colossians 1:15-17) The power came from God and the planning and raw materials came from God, but the assistance was given by a “firstborn” son....one who was “with God” “in the beginning”. He is the “us” and “our” in Genesis 1:26.

Since the eternal God had no “beginning” you still have not addressed a single question put to you....
 

Aunty Jane

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Just for clarity, John 4:24 is a bad translation as in the KJV. Its not "God is a spirit", but rather God is spirit. Big difference. God is spirit means he is the life force, energy, the breathe of life, etc., as opposed to a spirit. Look at other translations as well as the interlinear. Even the new KJV doesn't add "a". Only a few translations gave added the word "a".
Seriously, the omission of an “a” does not change who or what God is. He is “a spirit being” because he is described as “the invisible God”....that makes him a spirit, because he exists as an entity more powerful than anything else in existence, yet he is not visible to any but spirits who inhabit the realm where he resides...heaven.
Angels are spirits who dwell in that realm, as he is seen in vision with his angels around him. “God is a spirit” and his holy spirit is the immense power at his disposal in the accomplishment of his purpose.
 

David in NJ

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So three always means a trinity....right? Like water can be in three different presentations?....but it’s still water.....water isn’t God though, is it? And a rope with three strands is stronger than two, but that isn’t God either. Three is a popular number in the Bible but it never once describes God as three different individuals inhabiting one entity....who can be in three different places at the same time, and talk to one another. Only one prays to the Father, but never to the Holy Spirit, and the holy spirit is never mentioned as one who should be worshipped. You can blaspheme the Father or the son, but not the holy spirit yet no one seems to know why, if they are all equal parts of one God.

The holy spirit was only given to Jesus at his baptism, so apparently he was not able to perform miracles without it.....so if he was God, where was the holy spirit whilst he was growing to manhood for 30 years?

Jesus was able to pass holy spirit onto his apostles, who in turn could pass it on to others.....only then were they able to perform miracles. So were they passing on a person?

The Bible speaks freely of Father, son and holy spirit .....But never once does it say that these three are equal parts of Almighty God. These three are mentioned because God the Father is the originator of the other two. The Father is the only eternal being....his son was created, (Rev 3:14) and God’s spirit is not a person but the administration of his power to whomever and wherever he deems it necessary.

If “no man has seen God at any time” (as stated by the apostle John, in John 1:18, and he should know) then “God” has never been seen by any man. In the examples you furnish, apart from the Genesis creation account, God was seen by humans. Not to mention the thousands who saw Jesus......Does the Bible contradict itself?

In creation we know from the scriptures that God’s spirit provided the power......and the prehuman Jesus provided assistance as the agency “through whom” the creation of all things came about. (Colossians 1:15-17) The power came from God and the planning and raw materials came from God, but the assistance was given by a “firstborn” son....one who was “with God” “in the beginning”. He is the “us” and “our” in Genesis 1:26.

Since the eternal God had no “beginning” you still have not addressed a single question put to you....
Aunty says: "Three is a popular number in the Bible but it never once describes God as three different individuals inhabiting one entity....who can be in three different places at the same time, and talk to one another."

The Scripture ABSOLUTELY describes THREE Individuals that represent ELOHIM for us to SEE = Beginning in Genesis

THREE = Abraham Isaac Jacob

Without THREE = FATHER/SON/HOLY SPIRIT = you have no Gospel and you cannot be SAVED = Exodus ch 3 & Matthew ch 3

Then Jesus came from Galilee to John at the Jordan to be baptized by him. And John tried to prevent Him, saying, “I need to be baptized by You, and are You coming to me?”

But Jesus answered and said to him, “Permit it to be so now, for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness.” Then he allowed Him.

When He had been baptized, Jesus came up immediately from the water; and behold, the heavens were opened to Him, and He saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove and alighting upon Him.
And suddenly a Voice came from Heaven(Father), saying, “This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.”

Peace in the FATHER the SON and the HOLY SPIRIT are ONE
 
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Aunty Jane

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Aunty says: "Three is a popular number in the Bible but it never once describes God as three different individuals inhabiting one entity....who can be in three different places at the same time, and talk to one another."

The Scripture ABSOLUTELY describes THREE Individuals that represent ELOHIM for us to SEE = Beginning in Genesis

THREE = Abraham Isaac Jacob

Without THREE = FATHER/SON/HOLY SPIRIT = you have no Gospel and you cannot be SAVE = Exodus ch 3 & Matthew ch 3

Then Jesus came from Galilee to John at the Jordan to be baptized by him. And John tried to prevent Him, saying, “I need to be baptized by You, and are You coming to me?”

But Jesus answered and said to him, “Permit it to be so now, for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness.” Then he allowed Him.

When He had been baptized, Jesus came up immediately from the water; and behold, the heavens were opened to Him, and He saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove and alighting upon Him.
And suddenly a Voice came from Heaven(Father), saying, “This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.”

Peace in the FATHER the SON and the HOLY SPIRIT are ONE
You do understand that there is not one direct statement in all of scripture that even suggests what you stated here, if you take the Bible as a whole......
How many gods did Israel worship? The fact is that the God of Israel was different to all the gods of the nations because there was only ONE of him. All satanically inspired religion has multiple gods, often in triads....Christendom hides their multiple gods in one “head” pretending that this not the worship of three gods....we have “God the Father” spoken about in scripture, but “God the Son” and “God the Holy Spirit” are inventions of the church.....they are not found in God’s word at all.

Here are some well known trinities....

Search For Bible Truths: Trinity And Pagan Influence

Triple deity - Wikipedia

the three Lords - Brahma, Vishnu, and Shiva- constitute the Hindu ...

The Babylonians, Sumerians, Greeks, and Egyptians worshiped a ...

These pagan trinities are found all over the world....why is that do you suppose? Where did it originate? Ancient Babylon.....where all false worship began after the flood of Noah’s day. There is a greater “Babylon” that was foretold for our time and God is the one who commanded us to “get out of her my people”. (Rev 18:4-5) Anyone not obeying that command will receive the same just deserts as she does.

Deut 6:4 is the Jewish Shema....

4 Hear, O Israel: The Lord is our God; the Lord is one.דשְׁמַ֖ע יִשְׂרָאֵ֑ל יְהֹוָ֥ה אֱלֹהֵ֖ינוּ יְהֹוָ֥ה | אֶחָֽד:

“The Lord” here is “יְהֹוָ֥ה”...”Yahweh”.....the same “God” that Jesus served as his “apostle and High Priest”. (Heb 3:1) The same God whom Jesus identified as “the only true God” without including himself. (John 17:3)

You see there is more scripture that fights with the trinity than supports it. Did you know that it took the RCC centuries to make that doctrine official? It was not well supported at first because the Catholic church itself admits that it is not scriptural....if you tell a lie often enough and it becomes the truth.....

But if you want to hang onto something that was introduced into an apostate church by corrupt men, not too long after the apostles passed away, then be my guest....but you will never be able to say, “no one told me”....
 

David in NJ

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You do understand that there is not one direct statement in all of scripture that even suggests what you stated here, if you take the Bible as a whole......
How many gods did Israel worship? The fact is that the God of Israel was different to all the gods of the nations because there was only ONE of him. All satanically inspired religion has multiple gods, often in triads....Christendom hides their multiple gods in one “head” pretending that this not the worship of three gods....we have “God the Father” spoken about in scripture, but “God the Son” and “God the Holy Spirit” are inventions of the church.....they are not found in God’s word at all.

Here are some well known trinities....

Search For Bible Truths: Trinity And Pagan Influence

Triple deity - Wikipedia

the three Lords - Brahma, Vishnu, and Shiva- constitute the Hindu ...

View attachment 39249

These pagan trinities are found all over the world....why is that do you suppose? Where did it originate? Ancient Babylon.....where all false worship began after the flood of Noah’s day. There is a greater “Babylon” that was foretold for our time and God is the one who commanded us to “get out of her my people”. (Rev 18:4-5) Anyone not obeying that command will receive the same just deserts as she does.

Deut 6:4 is the Jewish Shema....

4 Hear, O Israel: The Lord is our God; the Lord is one.דשְׁמַ֖ע יִשְׂרָאֵ֑ל יְהֹוָ֥ה אֱלֹהֵ֖ינוּ יְהֹוָ֥ה | אֶחָֽד:

“The Lord” here is “יְהֹוָ֥ה”...”Yahweh”.....the same “God” that Jesus served as his “apostle and High Priest”. (Heb 3:1) The same God whom Jesus identified as “the only true God” without including himself. (John 17:3)

You see there is more scripture that fights with the trinity than supports it. Did you know that it took the RCC centuries to make that doctrine official? It was not well supported at first because the Catholic church itself admits that it is not scriptural....if you tell a lie often enough and it becomes the truth.....

But if you want to hang onto something that was introduced into an apostate church by corrupt men, not too long after the apostles passed away, then be my guest....but you will never be able to say, “no one told me”....
You were shown many direct declarations by the HOLY SPIRIT of TRUTH in the Holy Scriptures.

Deny the WORD and you deny God.
 
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Webers_Home

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~
John 3:5-6 . . . Most truly I say to you: Unless anyone is born from water
and spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. What has been born
from the flesh is flesh, and what has been born from the spirit is spirit.

One day I asked an experienced Jehovah's Witness if he was born of the
spirit. He answered no, and added that he did not expect to undergo a spirit
birth in either this life or the next because his hope isn't in Heaven.

The JW was somehow unaware that Jesus' discussion with Nicodemus wasn't
about things in Heaven, rather, things on Earth.

John 3:12 . . . If I have told you earthly things and yet you do not believe,
how will you believe if I tell you Heavenly things?

In other words: the kingdom of God, and the spirit birth requirement,
pertain to Messiah's theocratic world down here on the ground rather than
the supreme being's celestial world up in the sky.

It's both tragic and ironic that the Watchtower Society's rank and file
missionaries go worldwide advertising a kingdom that they themselves will
never be allowed to enter-- not because they didn't work hard enough to
deserve it, but simply because they were led to believe themselves exempt
from the spirit-birth requirement.
_
 

Webers_Home

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A very important difference between the Watchtower Society's version of
Christianity and mainstream's is that their Jesus' crucified dead body was
never restored to life, i.e. his body is still dead, and its remains squirreled
away somewhere on earth in a condition and a location known only to God.

"If Jesus were to take his body of flesh, blood, and bones to heaven and
enjoy them there, what would this mean? It would mean that there would be
no resurrection of the dead for anybody. Why not? Because Jesus would be
taking his sacrifice off God's altar.
"
(Watchtower magazine, April 15, 1963, p.237)
_
 
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TheHC

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Well, for one thing, we don’t kill our brothers.

Jesus said that would be the identifying mark (John 13:34,35), not necessarily some teaching to look for, but rather the love His followers would have for one another.

The clergy of Christendom, most factions of which are trinitarian, has supported worldly conflicts since its inception…. Even being the source of many wars…. Ignoring Christ’s command to not only love their spiritual brothers (John 15:17), but also to even love their enemies. — Matthew 5:44,45

So Jesus, right there, tells us how to search for truth…

Because manifestly, (and Jesus knew this,) people can go round & round over Scripture, disputing dogma; but what can’t be disputed, is the reputation Christendom’s leaders have established during wartime as a blood-letting oraganization! Part and parcel with the rest of the world. (James 4:4) No different than most other religions either.

Titus 1:16 applies.


I bring all of this out, because it really matters!
At Luke 10:21, Jesus stated his Father, ie., Yahweh, was the One Who revealed truth of Scripture.
Don’t you think that receiving enlightenment from God hinges on obedience to Him & His Son?

Jesús said, “You are my friends if you do what I tell you.” (John 15:14). And at Matthew 7:21-23, He prophesied that He would say to “many…’I never knew you! Away from me, you workers of iniquity!’”

Although understanding who God is, qualifies imo as one of the most important religious subjects there is to discuss … this site doesn’t want members debating the trinity, due to its volatile nature. So to put it simply, as Christians, Jehovah’s Witnesses strive to follow Christ: we solely worship who Jesus himself solely worshipped: His Father. John 20:17: John 4:23.

There are of course other differences….

But trying our best to live by - be obedient to - Jehovah’s standards, both morally and other ways, we attribute our worldwide unity & brotherly-love between the (currently) over 8.7 million of us, to Jehovah’s blessing & Spirit. Through which our brothers receive understanding.

Take care, to my cousins who read this. Hope y’all have a good day.
 

RedFan

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Context always dictates how any verse should be translated. Jesus said “I am” many times without once referring to himself as a deity. In the case of John 8:58, there is no connection with Ex 3:13-15.....unless you are a trinitarian. Jesus wasn’t a trinitarian and never spoke as his Father’s equal.
Agree with you on the importance of context. And agree on Jesus not speaking of himself as the Father's equal (although the "I and the Father are One" statement needs some exegesis in order to reach that conclusion). But I don't find the dearth of such comments conclusive, given that the earthly Jesus Christ, "though he existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God as something to be grasped, but emptied himself by taking on the form of a slave, by looking like other men, and by sharing in human nature." Phil. 2:6-7 (NET). So for the 30-plus years he walked the planet I wouldn't expect Jesus to make such equality comments anyway.

And by the way, yes, I am a Trinitarian. That doesn't stop me from pushing back on other Trinitarians who use questionable logic to support the thesis. (Sorry, @David in NJ). I've explained my position on this site at length. Why I Am a Trinitarian: Part One No need to rehash it.
 
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Webers_Home

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A very important difference between the Watchtower Society's version of
Christianity and mainstream's is that their Jesus' crucified dead body was
never restored to life, i.e. his body is still dead, and its remains squirreled
away somewhere on earth in a condition and a location known only to God.

FAQ: If Jesus' crucified dead body never recovered, then how does the
Watchtower Society explain his post resurrection appearances?


REPLY: The Society claims they were an angel disguised in a fully functioning
human avatar which they call a "materialized" body.


FAQ: Why are you calling it a disguise?

REPLY: The Society's angel never once let on that his avatar was anything less
than the real Jesus' body; including the injuries it sustained from crucifixion.
(John 20:27)
_
 
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David in NJ

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Agree with you on the importance of context. And agree on Jesus not speaking of himself as the Father's equal (although the "I and the Father are One" statement needs some exegesis in order to reach that conclusion). But I don't find the dearth of such comments conclusive, given that the earthly Jesus Christ, "though he existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God as something to be grasped, but emptied himself by taking on the form of a slave, by looking like other men, and by sharing in human nature." Phil. 2:6-7 (NET). So for the 30-plus years he walked the planet I wouldn't expect Jesus to make such equality comments anyway.

And by the way, yes, I am a Trinitarian. That doesn't stop me from pushing back on other Trinitarians who use questionable logic to support the thesis. (Sorry, @David in NJ). I've explained my position on this site at length. Why I Am a Trinitarian: Part One No need to rehash it.
Thank you for the 'honorable' mention = it was a good laugh from it

Start the New Year on the Path of Truth = Revelation & 1 John

To Him who loved us and washed us from our sins in His own blood, and has made us kings and priests to His God and Father, to Him be glory and dominion forever and ever. Amen.

Behold, He is coming with clouds, and every eye will see Him, even they who pierced Him. And all the tribes of the earth will mourn because of Him. Even so, Amen.

“I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End,” says the Lord, “who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.”

Who is a liar but he who denies that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist who denies the Father and the Son.
Whoever denies the Son does not have the Father either; he who acknowledges the Son has the Father also.
 

Aunty Jane

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You were shown many direct declarations by the HOLY SPIRIT of TRUTH in the Holy Scriptures.

Deny the WORD and you deny God.
Read through your replies and see that it is you yourself who is denying the Word presented to you.

You never answered a single question put to you.....there was no defence, which was obvious.......it wasn’t that you wouldn’t answer....but that you apparently had no answers.....I am not like you. I need to answer every question with scripture....solid, irrefutable scripture.....all you presented me with were interpretations of scripture that do not fit with what the whole Bible teaches....there were no “direct declarations”.

I am a careful researcher from way back......seems like someone else’s interpretation of scripture, even if it’s wrong, is something you accept without question because it is the widely held view......the “few” who are on “the road to life” reject the widely held view....its the people on the other “road” who all hold to the same errors, cruising along on the broad road which apparently has few restrictions, and a “believe whatever you like” attitude. Is that the “Christianity” Jesus promoted?

“Many” who thought that their faith was solid, are going to be devastated when the judgment comes. (Matt 7:13-14; 21-23) Simply “believing” something because it is a ‘majority view’ doesn’t guarantee that it is true....look what that meant for the first century Jews who were convinced that Jesus was a fraud....who told them that?

Something to think about...
 
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