Affection for the same sex.
Well, King David had wives, and Jonathan loved David "as himself" just as God commands all people to love others, same sex or not (Lev. 19:18). He and David were friends.
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Affection for the same sex.
You are the one being evasive by not addressing the question, and repeatedly asking "Are you gay?" Using the argument against the man, is typical of someone who is unable to answer reasonably in an debate.Are you gay? You're being quite evasive.
You are the one being evasive by not addressing the question, and repeatedly asking "Are you gay?" Using the argument against the man, is typical of someone who is unable to answer reasonably in an debate.
You need to stop using semantics and start using your initial and primary definitions of the words you use, rather than changing them. This will eventually go nowhereYou don't have a word for affection between two of the same sex.
If a father loves a son, is that "homosexual"?
Are you gay?You are the one being evasive by not addressing the question, and repeatedly asking "Are you gay?" Using the argument against the man, is typical of someone who is unable to answer reasonably in an debate.
No I am not, but I am beginning to think there is evidence of persons on here with latent homosexuality that they are fighting against or struggling over. When people are so adamant in their argument on this topic, and are unable to exegete and prove the verses they throw about actually mean what they claim, there must be a reason for it. Maybe you'd like to try giving an answer to my post about 2 Samuel 1:26 instead of asking if I am gay.Are you gay?
Good!No I am not,
Huh?but I am beginning to think there is evidence of persons on here with latent homosexuality that they are fighting against or struggling over.
I already answered you with God's Word.When people are so adamant in their argument on this topic, and are unable to exegete and prove the verses they throw about actually mean what they claim, there must be a reason for it. Maybe you'd like to try giving an answer to my post about 2 Samuel 1:26 instead of asking if I am gay.
When you reply to my post of 2 Samuel 1:26, I'll gladly give you a full exposition of Rom 1:26, 27. Do you think quoting Rom.1:27 without explaining in detail what that has to do with two males in a loving gay relationship today means anything at all? I'll give you a hint, notice the words "leaving the natural use of the woman". But do go on and give an answer to 2 Sam. 1:26Good!
Huh?
I already answered you with God's Word.
Romans 1
27 Likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust for one another, men with men committing what is shameful, and receiving in themselves the penalty of their error which was due.
Gays are heading for Hell fire. Are you one of them?When you reply to my post of 2 Samuel 1:26, I'll gladly give you a full exposition of Rom 1:26, 27. Do you think quoting Rom.1:27 without explaining in detail what that has to do with two males in a loving gay relationship today means anything at all? I'll give you a hint, notice the words "leaving the natural use of the woman". But do go on and give an answer to 2 Sam. 1:26
Your responses in this thread exhibit just how totally ignorant you are about the psychology research on homosexuality and the biblical statements on male on male sexual sins. It is amazing how massive the response is on this topic here, but you don't see such vitriol shown on fornication in our day!Gays are heading for Hell fire. Are you one of them?
Since no gay-haters have tried to give an answer to this verse about Jonathan's love, I'll add an additional verse and when added to 2 Sam. 1:26; it is an unavoidable conclusion that the sexual element was present.Shouldn't we study real reasoning from the scriptures themselves for the answers? Individual opinions and superficial study of Bible verses don't prove very much.
David in describing Jonathan's love in his lament after the death of Jonathan -
"I am distressed for thee, my brother Jonathan: very pleasant hast thou been unto me: thy love to me was wonderful, passing the love of women." (2Sam 1:26 KJV)
If this love David mentions is fully platonic, why does it not read "love of brother, or mother, or father, or wife, or wives"?
For what reason did the Latin Vulgate, which is translated into English in the Wycliffe and Douay-Rheims translations read like this -
I grieve for thee, my brother Jonathan: exceeding beautiful, and amiable to me above the love of women. As the mother loveth her only son, so did I love thee. (2Sam 1:26 DRC)
That underlined sentence is not found in the Hebrew, nor in the Septuagint nor is it found in any other translations of today. Now, why would Jerome feel the need to add a totally fake sentence about a mother's love? Again, if the love was any other than women's love, why is that not what it says?
Of course, David had many wives and concubines, so maybe Jonathan's love was better than all those women? Maybe David meant that Jonathan's true love passed the sexual love of all those wives and concubines. But, that would be a rather clumsy way to say it was a higher level, platonic; when he could have said brother or mother or father or wife, etc.
Are you gay?
Romans 1
27 Likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust for one another, men with men committing what is shameful, and receiving in themselves the penalty of their error which was due.
Regarding the interpretation of Rom. 1:26-27: verse 26 does not say women had sex with other women. If they were having anal and oral sex with men, that was a change of behavior from the created design. To say this is lesbianism is to read into the verse what it does not state.Are you gay?
Romans 1
27 Likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust for one another, men with men committing what is shameful, and receiving in themselves the penalty of their error which was due.
I'm coming to believe the translators of the KJV were far more accurate in their translations of the male on male sex sin passages. I used to wonder why the KJV used the word "sodomite(s)" in the OT for what are idolatrous male temple prostitutes? But the KJV did not use "sodomites" in the NT. Then I noticed the note in the margin of the KJV on Deut. 23:17 -
I know I'll answer to my Lord on the last day what I have posted here. I take it very seriously indeed. But, I wonder how the Lord will respond to those who excuse their hatred by saying, "I was just hating the sin and loving the sinner". How much actual study have the posters in this thread actually done on the pertinent scriptures? I do not see any!
FREEWILL to choose ones own WILL is Right.I will be advocating for the side that homosexuality is inherently wrong, and the promotion of such actions and thoughts are evil. Similar or contrasting views are welcome and gladly accepted. Let us be in constant search for the truth during our discussion.
HATE IS NOT the Opposite of LOVE.I know I'll answer to my Lord on the last day what I have posted here. I take it very seriously indeed. But, I wonder how the Lord will respond to those who excuse their hatred by saying, "I was just hating the sin and loving the sinner". How much actual study have the posters in this thread actually done on the pertinent scriptures? I do not see any!