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Right, exact quotes in 1600s English court language.And please... Don't forget the Lord's words in red!![]()
Why would that be any less credible than all the other translations you dismissed?Robert Young entitling his translation "Young's Literal Translation" doesn't make it a literal translation. It attempts to preserve the tense and word usage as found in the original Greek and Hebrew writings, but there is no direct correspondence to English. He produced a "Revised Version" of his translation in 1887 and a new Revised Edition was released in1898, ten years after his death. So, which one is the "literal translation"?
Here, for example is Genesis 1:1-3, "In the beginning of God's preparing the heavens and the earth—the earth hath existed waste and void, and darkness on the face of the deep, and the Spirit of God fluttering on the face of the waters, and God saith, 'Let light be;' and light is."
To most, it would mean that it aligns with your man-made doctrines.
cc: @Patrick1966
That is not even a quote from the KJV. Shame on you. Here is the actual verse: For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.Here is just one example of the KJV contradicting itself. 1 Timothy 4:10 King James Version
For to this end we toil and strive, because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of all people, especially of those who believe.
Daniel 12:2 is indeed from the KJV. SO WHERE'S THE CONTRADICTION? If all would have believed, all would have been saved, Since all did not believe, many will face eternal damnation ("everlasting contempt). So both verses are correct, and it is Patrick 1966 who needs to wake up.Daniel 12:2 King James Version And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.
So which verse is correct? They can't both be correct. One says that Jesus saves ALL people and the other says "some to shame and everlasting contempt".
I think that is more of a Bible contradicting itself, than a translation issue with the KJV.Here is just one example of the KJV contradicting itself.
1 Timothy 4:10 King James Version
For to this end we toil and strive, because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of all people, especially of those who believe.
Daniel 12:2 King James Version
And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.
So which verse is correct? They can't both be correct. One says that Jesus saves ALL people and the other says "some to shame and everlasting contempt".
Hang on there.That is not even a quote from the KJV. Shame on you. Here is the actual verse: For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.
It is a contradiction with 1 Timothy 4:10, and many others. Here are a few.Daniel 12:2 is indeed from the KJV. SO WHERE'S THE CONTRADICTION? If all would have believed, all would have been saved, Since all did not believe, many will face eternal damnation ("everlasting contempt).
Why can't an updated version still be literal? A work in progress.Robert Young entitling his translation "Young's Literal Translation" doesn't make it a literal translation. It attempts to preserve the tense and word usage as found in the original Greek and Hebrew writings, but there is no direct correspondence to English. He produced a "Revised Version" of his translation in 1887 and a new Revised Edition was released in1898, ten years after his death. So, which one is the "literal translation"?
That is not even a quote from the KJV. Shame on you.
So both verses are correct, and it is Patrick 1966 who needs to wake up.
What all these arguments of different/ing translations of the Bible is saying as well as showing is how far along the "great drifting away trail" this 'ol world has/is become.
The Hebrew word translated in the Daniel verse is olam.Here is just one example of the KJV contradicting itself.
1 Timothy 4:10 King James Version
For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.
Daniel 12:2 King James Version
And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.
So which verse is correct? They can't both be correct. One says that Jesus saves ALL people and the other says "some to shame and everlasting contempt".
Love the Nuns with Gunz avatar. - LOL
Have you considered switching the positions of the KJV and NIV versions? If they raise the NIV, then they will naturally lower the KJV. It's the same situation for what you're doing, can't you see that?
Actually the butchering of God's word began the moment the early church fathers incompetently began translating the original scriptures. That's how we got "eternal torment".
You do have a point. Yet? It's all part of Our Father's reconciling us back to Himself via His only begotten Son Jesus Christ of Nazareth. Where by we not only "see" the Father. But, go unto The Father.
But? This takes earnest efforts of spiritual sacrifices of faith as well as flesh that are acceptable to God By Jesus Christ of Nazareth. Which build these "Spiritual Houses" that are inside of each one of us. Where/When the "many mansions" of "My Father's House" becomes the platform where "The Royal Priesthood" emerges to greater degrees of abidances as well as remembrances and discernings of things Spiritual which sound as so much folly to eyes and ears that have grown dull to the "weathering/erosive effects" by the beast and its false prophets.
(and I gotta go....)
What?The NIV is one of the worst Translations ever created.
Its basically created for the Pentecostal movement, and it has no use for the Deity of Christ, among many other Theological issues, regarding its text.
Avoid it completely.
Because his translated wording is strange and confusing. As I wrote earlier, Robert Young entitling his translation "Young's Literal Translation" doesn't make it a literal translation. It attempts to preserve the tense and word usage as found in the original Greek and Hebrew writings, but there is no direct correspondence to English.Why would that be any less credible than all the other translations you dismissed?
(doesn't align with common doctrine?) By what standard are translations measured?