There is no doubt in my mind that the KJV fanatics insist that their preferred translation is the only valid one is based on the false feeling of religious holiness, that God must communicate in some sort of exalted-sounding language. The problem with this is obvious: when Jesus, who is God personified, spoke, His language was Aramaic. It is a Semitic language and was the lingua franca of the region for over three thousand years. When Jesus spoke to crowds of mostly-illiterate people, He did not speak in some sort of pious language but in the plain language of the people that they clearly understood. He did not speak in some sort of "highbrow" language that was the equivalent of the language in which the King James version is written.
It is my contention that KJV advocates are using false arguments such as the claim that modern translations are using invalid sources in their work to justify their pseudo-holiness feeling that they equate with the tone and meaning of early 17th Century Englyshe.
"Forasmuch as ye know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things, as silver and gold, from your vain conversation received by tradition from your fathers but with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot" may sound more "holy" to their ears instead of "For you know that it was not with perishable things such as silver or gold that you were redeemed from the empty way of life handed down to you from your ancestors, but with the precious blood of Christ, a lamb without blemish or defect" but there is no basis for claiming that the author of 1 Peter wrote in such flowery prose as the above. (Verse selected at random, but you get the idea.)
It is a distortion of the truth to project this kind of pseudo-holiness onto the "books" of the Bible. The Bible was written to be understood without muddling God's message with words and phrases that obfuscate the meaning and lead to all kinds of misinterpretations, deliberate or otherwise.
KJVOs need not respond!