Do you believe in universal salvation? If Christ died for the entire human race and God loved the entire human race, then obviously every one in the human race is saved. Right?
Not necessarily "is" saved, as yet, but rather "shall be" saved.
Php 2:10 That
at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
Php 2:11
And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Rom 10:9 That
if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.
The wording of the purpose clause (Php 2:10-11 in the KJV) translates the aorist tense/subjunctive mood verbs "bow" and "confess" as only being potential. However, it's purpose is to answer the question as to
why God exalted the name of Jesus above every name (v.9). And the answer is so that (Gk ἵνα, ie: purpose) every knee
will bow and every tongue
will confess that Jesus is Lord, to the glory of God. And by doing so, Paul tells us "thou shalt be saved", using the future tense/indicative mood for the verb "saved".
Also, the wording of Php 2:10 is taken from Isaiah, here:
Isa 45:23 I have sworn by myself, the word is gone out of my mouth in righteousness, and shall not return,
That unto me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear.
And also, the LXX translation of the Hebrew text uses the verbs "καμψει" and "εξομολογησεται" in the future tense/indicative mood, giving a statement of fact. It will happen. It just hasn't happened yet.
There is no room for doubt that every knee shall bow and every tongue shall swear/confess to God, exactly as the text states. And consequently, "thou shall be saved". This is applicable to everyone, to all without exception. To all souls, as the text clearly indicates:
of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth. The word "things" could just as easily have been stated as "those", the term
things is not in the actual text.