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Thanks, everyone. It sounds like the verse is interpreted this way because the words, 'Eklektois' and 'prognōsin', have been used this way in other places in scripture. I don't doubt God. Man is another story.

I just realized that in my original response, I did not understand my own question properly. I did not suggest that 'elect' modified Peter. I was suggesting that it modified the strangers. That is exactly what you confirmed. I was just wondering why they use it in connection with foreknowledge.

The apostles were not strangers to run-on sentences. So, the word 'eklektos' is dative and plural indicating that it is modifying the word 'strangers'. That helps but does not explain it. In my uneducated translation I have it directly modifying the strangers. The major translations, KJV, NIV...

Thanks. That helps explain why it was translated this way. I hope everyone understands that the translation I suggested was not what I actually think it means. Like I said, I don't know Greek, so I have no translation of my own.

Seriously? What exactly do you think I doubt? I am just asking questions about why a passage was translated a particular way. Every translation is different, so I want to know which one is closest to the original meaning. I know some of them are wrong because they are not all translated in a...

I see that and find it very dishonest. Rearranging words changes the meaning. The word in the Greek is in reference to the chosen expatriates. When they use it in verse two it is used in connection with foreknowledge. If chosen is used in connection to the foreknowledge of God it sounds like the...

I have a question about 1 Peter 1:1-2. In the NIV, NKJV and NASB and other versions, verse 2 says they were elected or chosen according to the foreknowledge of God? The word elect is not there in the Greek version I saw online. These same translations sometimes remove the word elect from verse...