Yes you can! For Mary Magdeline was called from Magdala at the same time Mary was called from Bethany.
The woman in Bethany named "Mary" who anointed Jesus with ointment using her hair isn't called anything but "Mary" by the apostle John. She's called "Mary of Bethany" by readers because Bethany is where she's located in the scene, and it's assumed that she lived there at the time. Can you rule out that Mary the Magdalene went from living in Magdala to Bethany? Can you also rule out that Mary the Magdalene was also called "Mary"?