Then why does it not say that "to all it has been granted?
Funny, when my boss told me "to you we granted two weeks vacation" none of my coworkers complained about suddenly losing their 2 weeks. Like I said, you reasoning is totally subjective.
Again, then why does the passage not say what you are implying? I simply let the verse speak for itself; YOU are the one who read into it "Well, it doesn't say that it's not for all, so...." I just read what the verse said; nothing more. No reading into it needed, it speaks for itself.
No, it is YOU who are demanding that "because these aren't mentioned, they don't get none" when so many other places use "every man", "whosoever", "all men", etc. See what I did there? I turned you silly projected subjectivity back on you.
Oh.... so there are things that the God man incarnate cannot do? You rather limit the power of Christ than accept what the verse says? You are compromising your view of Christ to cling onto "Christ died for all". If Christ came to die for everyone, he would have prayed for everyone in his high priestly prayer.
He cannot force open the door upon which He knocks. That's one. And if you knew anything about the Sanctuary, you'd know that the High Priest only intercedes for those who come to the altar of Sacrifice and confess their sins..otherwise, no one would have been cut off from the congregation.
Except for the fact that none of the verses say "all" and instead say "many". But we'll overlook that one.
I've overlooked nothing. The fact that lots of people are going to the Lake of Fire is all that is necessary to show why "many" and not "all" is used to describe those who will be saved.
Ok, so is unbelief a sin?
"Without faith it is impossible to please God". Y'know, "faith", a measure of which God has dealt to "all men"?
:)
While I disagree, I want to thank you for taking the time to read my posts.