You also have the Immaculate conception without going into detail it basically means Mary did not have the fallen state.Jesus could not take on flesh in a fallen state so Mary could not be in a fallen state to birth him..He also was never in a fallen state it had to be that way.If its believe Mary was not in a fallen state she was capable of not sinning.Let the argument begin.
Umm yeah she could and yes she was born fallen. Jesus did not take on flesh in the fallen state but was born in the LIKENESS of flesh (Rom 8:3. Not because of any imaginary sinlessness of His earth mother. His sinlessness He got from His Father and the Holy Ghost not His mother. You make His sinful creation equal to Him with your blasphemy. Or have you forgotten what the bible says, ALL have sinned........where does it say All have sinned except Mary?
Mary was under the Law......and what was the Law made for?
1 Timothy 1:9Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,
Mary sinned
Was Mary sinless? Was Mary without sin? Why does Roman Catholicism teach that Jesus’ mother Mary was sinless?
www.gotquestions.org
As an ordinary part of the human race, born into the world the ordinary way, Mary was not without sin.
Romans 3:23 teaches that all have sinned and fall short of God’s glory, and there is nothing in the Bible to suggest that Mary was an exception to this rule. The apostle John wrote, “If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness. If we claim we have not sinned, we make him out to be a liar and his word is not in us” (
1 John 1:8–10). The “we” in this passage includes Mary, the mother of Jesus. To claim Mary is without sin is an example of “deceit.”
Rather than teach that Mary was sinless, the Bible gives evidence that she was a normal person with a normal person’s need of salvation. In Mary’s praise-filled, humble prayer in
Luke 1, she says, “My spirit rejoices in God my Savior” (verse 47). If she were sinless, she would not have needed a “Savior.” Mary receives a gentle rebuke from Jesus in
John 2:4, which hardly seems fitting if she were sinless.
Mary sinned at the Wedding at Cana because she wanted glory through her glorious Son
Mary needed a Saviour - no sinless person needs a saviour. Now I will head you off here because I know you will come at me with the foolishness that her cleansing was retroactive from the moment of her conception. Utter unbiblical GARBAGE
) that he had half brothers and sisters what would that do to your faith?
