James Was Not Talking about Faith in Jesus Christ for Salvation

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Titus

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Apparently Behold is lacking in understanding of what is working righteousness.

Psalm 119:172 gives the answer,
My tongue shall speak of your word,
For all Your commandments are righteousness.

God approves of those who work/keep/obey His commandments.

Never.
Not ever.

God will never accept your righteousness, as you dont have any to offer Him.
This is why God had to die as Christ on the Cross, to give you HIS Righteousness as "the gift of Righteousness"......to accept you.

Behold? God does not accept those who obey Him, Work righteousness?

2Thessalonians 1:8
In flaming fire taking vengeance on those who do not know God and on those who do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ.
 

Bible Highlighter

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I get the gist of your plan of salvation.

Again,

You are teaching we get saved without works.

AFTER WE HAVE BEEN SAVED WITHOUT WORKS:

Now we must be saved by works. OR To stay saved.

Sorry Sir, your doctrine contradicts itself.

It cannot be both!

That is double talk.

Either we are saved without works
Or
Saved with faith and works

You cannot say initially, I'm saved without works!!!

Then say, But if I don't do works I'm not going to be saved.


Trying to make this as simple as possible.

In your doctrine, if I do not do works I will not be saved.

Therefore, you cannot without contradiction say I am saved without works.

Its simply an impossibility.

The meaning of a person who has obtained salvation is saved.
Salvation: going to heaven

You teach,

Saved by faith alone ie Salvation: YES, will be in heaven.

You also teach,

Going to heaven by my salvation in faith alone: NO, without works going to hell.


The conclusion you have come to is a logical fallacy.
It is simply an impossibility.

Your Theology fails logic.
Therefore it is false.

The true gospel unto salvation is:

Faith and obedience to initially be saved.

THEN

Must stay faithfull, obedient to stay saved.

The other logical possibility is also true in Theory but not Biblical, it is.

Saved initially by faith alone. note: [Excepting the premise that faith is not a work in it self]

THEN

Saved permanently because of faith alone, regardless of works.

Those are the only two common doctrines that do not contradict themselves.

This is the same kind of problem people have when they don’t understand the Trinity. Some people cannot just understand that the Lord our God is one God and yet He also exists as three distinct persons. I have seen it tons of times. There was even a Christian I talked with before who accepts the belief of the Trinity but yet he does not understand it (even though I explained it to him). This is because God's truths are spiritually discerned.

Anyways, I believe what I do because that is what the Bible teaches. Otherwise you have a Bible that contradicts itself. For Paul predominantly teaches salvation by grace without works, and yet James predominantly teaches salvation by works and not by faith alone. There are those who make it all about works like the Church of Christ, and then there are folks who make it all about a belief alone in Jesus + nothing else like many Sola Fide Protestant churches. Funny, how those who believe in Works Alone Salvationism have a hard time with what Paul says (and in some cases, they outright reject the writings of Paul like the Ebionites). Then there are those who hold to Perpetual Belief Alone-ism and they have a hard time accepting the words of James (and there are those like Luther who called the book of James an epistle of straw). Each side (Works Alone Salvationists & Perpetual Belief Alone Salvationists) tries to undo the other side of the Bible in some way. They have not tried to reconcile both Paul and James so that they both speak as being fully true. This thread itself is a testimony of how one side does not like what James says (So they decided to create a work around explanation that does not give James his do in what he plainly says). I believe you do the same with the apostle Paul. How do you explain Romans 11:6? You cannot in good conscience give the apostle Paul his do in what he plainly says in this verse and many others.

Romans 11:6 says,
“And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work.”

Please give me a word for word commentary on this verse and how you believe in it.
What does grace mean to you? How is it no more works if it is by grace?
I will give you my explanation in my upcoming posts (Lord willing).
 
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Bible Highlighter

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I get the gist of your plan of salvation.

Again,

You are teaching we get saved without works.

AFTER WE HAVE BEEN SAVED WITHOUT WORKS:

Now we must be saved by works. OR To stay saved.

Sorry Sir, your doctrine contradicts itself.

It cannot be both!

That is double talk.

Either we are saved without works
Or
Saved with faith and works

You cannot say initially, I'm saved without works!!!

Then say, But if I don't do works I'm not going to be saved.


Trying to make this as simple as possible.

In your doctrine, if I do not do works I will not be saved.

Therefore, you cannot without contradiction say I am saved without works.

Its simply an impossibility.

The meaning of a person who has obtained salvation is saved.
Salvation: going to heaven

You teach,

Saved by faith alone ie Salvation: YES, will be in heaven.

You also teach,

Going to heaven by my salvation in faith alone: NO, without works going to hell.


The conclusion you have come to is a logical fallacy.
It is simply an impossibility.

Your Theology fails logic.
Therefore it is false.

The true gospel unto salvation is:

Faith and obedience to initially be saved.

THEN

Must stay faithfull, obedient to stay saved.

The other logical possibility is also true in Theory but not Biblical, it is.

Saved initially by faith alone. note: [Excepting the premise that faith is not a work in it self]
(I know in reality faith is a work so this gospel also has contradictions)

THEN

Saved permanently because of faith alone, regardless of works.

Those are the only two common doctrines that do not contradict themselves.

Time changes many things in life. For example: A person can be hired at a job by a job application, and job interview and not by any performance of doing the actual work at the job itself. But if the person fails to perform or do the work at the job, in many cases, they most likely will be fired or let go. The difference between the hiring process and the performance process are two different things. Some jobs have an evaluation period to see how they perform and if they don't perform to the company's standard, they are let go. But that does not mean they were not hired on and paid for the job. Sometimes companies have training whereby it does not involve hands on experience and it is just videos. Again, this is not actual work of the job they are doing. Yet, the company can pay them for the training. The point here is that there is a difference in time for the person who is being hired vs. them actually doing the job.

This is the way it is with Paul and James. Paul is concerned about what a person does in the hiring process, and James is concerned about the evaluation of performance process in the work they do. There is no contradiction in this and it is entirely logical (if you understand the difference).
 
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Bible Highlighter

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I get the gist of your plan of salvation.

Again,

You are teaching we get saved without works.

AFTER WE HAVE BEEN SAVED WITHOUT WORKS:

Now we must be saved by works. OR To stay saved.

Sorry Sir, your doctrine contradicts itself.

It cannot be both!

That is double talk.

Either we are saved without works
Or
Saved with faith and works

You cannot say initially, I'm saved without works!!!

Then say, But if I don't do works I'm not going to be saved.


Trying to make this as simple as possible.

In your doctrine, if I do not do works I will not be saved.

Therefore, you cannot without contradiction say I am saved without works.

Its simply an impossibility.

The meaning of a person who has obtained salvation is saved.
Salvation: going to heaven

You teach,

Saved by faith alone ie Salvation: YES, will be in heaven.

You also teach,

Going to heaven by my salvation in faith alone: NO, without works going to hell.


The conclusion you have come to is a logical fallacy.
It is simply an impossibility.

Your Theology fails logic.
Therefore it is false.

The true gospel unto salvation is:

Faith and obedience to initially be saved.

THEN

Must stay faithfull, obedient to stay saved.

The other logical possibility is also true in Theory but not Biblical, it is.

Saved initially by faith alone. note: [Excepting the premise that faith is not a work in it self]
(I know in reality faith is a work so this gospel also has contradictions)

THEN

Saved permanently because of faith alone, regardless of works.

Those are the only two common doctrines that do not contradict themselves.

I would encourage you to read Acts of the Apostles 15:1-24 and carefully think about what took place there. Then read Galatians 5:2 and Galatians 5:4 and carefully think about how they may relate.

Why?

Well, the key to understanding Paul and his claim that we are saved by God's grace through faith without works (Ephesians 2:8-9) is understanding the heresy he was fighting, too.

Paul was fighting against a heresy of which I call, "Circumcision Salvationism" (Which is Law Alone Salvationism without God's grace); A certain sect of Jews were trying to deceive some Christians into thinking they had to first be circumcised in order to be saved. This was a heresy that was clearly addressed at the Jerusalem council (See Acts of the Apostles 15:1, Acts of the Apostles 15:5, Acts of the Apostles 15:24). Paul also addressed this problem; Paul said to the Galatians that if you seek to be circumcised, Christ will profit you nothing (Galatians 5:2), and then Paul mentions how if you seek to be justified by the Law, you have fallen from grace (Galatians 5:4). This "law" is the Torah because circumcision is not a part of the commands given to us by Jesus and His followers.

For if a person thought they had to first be circumcised in order to be initially saved (instead of being saved by God's grace through faith in Jesus Christ, the gospel, and His mercy), then they would be making a Work of the Law (the Torah or Old Law) the basis of their salvation instead of God's grace. The entrance gate and the foundation of salvation would be circumcision or a law, or work. Paul is basically saying that the hiring process does not require you to perform (like what happens at a job in many cases).

Paul is condemning Law ALONE Salvationism, or Works ALONE Salvationism (that did not include God's grace as the entrance gate and foundation of our faith). If this was not the case, then he would be contradicting even himself (See: Titus 1:16, Romans 8:13).
 

Bible Highlighter

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I get the gist of your plan of salvation.

Again,

You are teaching we get saved without works.

AFTER WE HAVE BEEN SAVED WITHOUT WORKS:

Now we must be saved by works. OR To stay saved.

Sorry Sir, your doctrine contradicts itself.

It cannot be both!

That is double talk.

Either we are saved without works
Or
Saved with faith and works

You cannot say initially, I'm saved without works!!!

Then say, But if I don't do works I'm not going to be saved.


Trying to make this as simple as possible.

In your doctrine, if I do not do works I will not be saved.

Therefore, you cannot without contradiction say I am saved without works.

Its simply an impossibility.

The meaning of a person who has obtained salvation is saved.
Salvation: going to heaven

You teach,

Saved by faith alone ie Salvation: YES, will be in heaven.

You also teach,

Going to heaven by my salvation in faith alone: NO, without works going to hell.


The conclusion you have come to is a logical fallacy.
It is simply an impossibility.

Your Theology fails logic.
Therefore it is false.

The true gospel unto salvation is:

Faith and obedience to initially be saved.

THEN

Must stay faithfull, obedient to stay saved.

The other logical possibility is also true in Theory but not Biblical, it is.

Saved initially by faith alone. note: [Excepting the premise that faith is not a work in it self]
(I know in reality faith is a work so this gospel also has contradictions)

THEN

Saved permanently because of faith alone, regardless of works.

Those are the only two common doctrines that do not contradict themselves.

What is your understanding of how a believer is saved by God's grace?
Is not grace all about God's mercy and forgiveness?

How do you describe what happens when a person calls upon the name of the Lord in Romans 10:13?
Did Jesus forgive the sins of others without them performing or doing works for Him?
What about the thief on the cross? Did he do the same works like other believers are required to do so as to be saved?
Was the thief on the cross water baptized in order to be saved?

Does not grace continue? What do you think 1 John 1:9 and 1 John 2:1 means? Are they connected?
What about Hebrews 4:16?
What do you think happened with King David in Psalms 51?
What do you think happened with the parable of the Prodigal Son when he came back home and was desiring to seek forgiveness with his father? (See: Luke 15:11-32).
What do you think happened with the Tax Collector in the Parable of the Tax Collector and the Pharisee? (See: Luke 18:9-14).

This is what I am referring to. Grace. It's not of works. When we seek forgiveness with the Lord Jesus by way of prayer, it is not in anything that you do. When you believe the words in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 to be saved it is not anything you are doing but it is merely believing those words in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4. Whatever you want to call 1 Corinthians 15:1-4, it is teaching something we must believe in order to be saved. Paul says the Corinthians received this message or belief and they stand upon it to be saved. Call it whatever you like but it is tied to how we get saved. A belief. It does not describe a performance of any kind in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4. And... it uses that word... gospel. Do you believe that? I just do not see how. For you believe water baptism is the gospel when Paul makes it clear that there is a difference between water baptism and the gospel in 1 Corinthians 1:17. 1 Corinthians 1:17 is a verse that you have to fight against in order to make it say what you want it to say. You cannot just read 1 Corinthians 1:17 and believe it plainly in what it says. The verse has to be distorted in order to make your belief work. In fact, that is what you are basing your salvation upon. A work just like circumcision is a work.
 

Bible Highlighter

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I get the gist of your plan of salvation.

Again,

You are teaching we get saved without works.

AFTER WE HAVE BEEN SAVED WITHOUT WORKS:

Now we must be saved by works. OR To stay saved.

Sorry Sir, your doctrine contradicts itself.

It cannot be both!

That is double talk.

Either we are saved without works
Or
Saved with faith and works

You cannot say initially, I'm saved without works!!!

Then say, But if I don't do works I'm not going to be saved.


Trying to make this as simple as possible.

In your doctrine, if I do not do works I will not be saved.

Therefore, you cannot without contradiction say I am saved without works.

Its simply an impossibility.

The meaning of a person who has obtained salvation is saved.
Salvation: going to heaven

You teach,

Saved by faith alone ie Salvation: YES, will be in heaven.

You also teach,

Going to heaven by my salvation in faith alone: NO, without works going to hell.


The conclusion you have come to is a logical fallacy.
It is simply an impossibility.

Your Theology fails logic.
Therefore it is false.

The true gospel unto salvation is:

Faith and obedience to initially be saved.

THEN

Must stay faithfull, obedient to stay saved.

The other logical possibility is also true in Theory but not Biblical, it is.

Saved initially by faith alone. note: [Excepting the premise that faith is not a work in it self]
(I know in reality faith is a work so this gospel also has contradictions)

THEN

Saved permanently because of faith alone, regardless of works.

Those are the only two common doctrines that do not contradict themselves.

You cannot make a process of salvation that is works based the foundation of your salvation.

Yes, I know. Jesus says, “Jesus answered and said unto them, This is the work of God, that ye believe on him whom he hath sent.” (John 6:29).

This is 100% true. But you have to understand that this is a work of GOD and not a work by you.

Yes, we have free will. I am not a Calvinist by any means, but we cannot come to God and believe in Him without Christ first drawing us (John 12:32) (Which is is a work of God done by Jesus). So when we believe, it is the work of God or Jesus being moved upon our heart by knocking.

Revelation 3:20 says,
Behold, I stand at the door and knock. If anyone should hear My voice and open the door, then I will come in to him and will dine with him, and he with Me.

The Holy Spirit also does the work of God upon our heart in order for us to believe, too.

John 16:8-9
8 “And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment:
9 Of sin, because they believe not on me;”

The actual mechanics or operation of the actual process of salvation itself in believing in Jesus as your Savior (John 1:12), or believing the gospel message in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4, or calling upon the name of the Lord Jesus (seeking forgiveness of your past life of sin) (Romans 10:13) is not works based in its operation. It's called a work of GOD because Jesus draws us (doing the work of God in drawing us) and because the Spirit convicts sin in our lives for us be moved in order to believe (by our free will cooperation) that He died for your sins, He was buried, and He was risen the third day so that you can be forgiven of your sins, and one day be resurrected after His likeness and to seek forgiveness with Jesus over our past life of sin. This is the first step towards God in trusting Him for salvation by a belief alone and by throwing yourself down upon His mercy and grace. No works are actually involved by you when you first to the Lord Jesus Christ. Jesus can say that belief is a work of God because you could not believe without His intervention and without the intervention of the Spirit. Granted, God does not force you to believe like the Calvinists falsely teach, but yet at the same time you could not believe without God working upon your heart and convicting of sin to seek forgiveness of your past life of sin with Jesus by way of prayer and a belief in the message in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4.

The question we should all ask ourselves, do we truly know the Lord?
Have we truly been transformed by Him?
Was our heart renewed?
I would not be here on this forum if I did not honestly meet the Lord Jesus Christ with my life forever being changed.

I used to be an atheist, and I received a comic tract called, "This Was Your Life" back in 1992. When I accepted Christ as my Savior, it was like a love, joy, and peace I had never known before came washing over me like a summer rain. I wanted everyone to know the love, joy, and peace that I have.

This is why I believe it is important to know God's grace. I believe without it, nobody really can be saved or know Jesus for real. For when I first got saved, I wanted to tell everyone of what happened to me. The Lord changed my heart and my life. I was a new creation. God changed my life. This is what grace does.

Side Note:

This is the tract that God used to lead me to Jesus Christ.

"This Was Your Life."

full


Chick.com: This Was Your Life


Here is a similar version of this tract for women:

full


Chick.com: You Have a Date!
 

Titus

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First I have just one question for you.

You taught me we are saved by faith only. Salvation ie Eternal life in faith alone.

Question: Can I be saved by faith alone and go to heaven after I live out my days here on earth?

Second point:
Gods grace saves.
It saved the Jews that obeyed the gospel of faith and works in Acts 2:38.
Those Jews did not earn their salvation by their works.

Jews and gentiles receive Gods grace by the same way.
Paul proves this to be true.

Acts 26:20
But declared first to those in Damascus and in Jerusalem, and throughout all the region of Judea, and then to the Gentiles, that they should repent, turn to God and do works befitting repentance.
 
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Bible Highlighter

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I get the gist of your plan of salvation.

Again,

You are teaching we get saved without works.

AFTER WE HAVE BEEN SAVED WITHOUT WORKS:

Now we must be saved by works. OR To stay saved.

Sorry Sir, your doctrine contradicts itself.

It cannot be both!

That is double talk.

Either we are saved without works
Or
Saved with faith and works

You cannot say initially, I'm saved without works!!!

Then say, But if I don't do works I'm not going to be saved.


Trying to make this as simple as possible.

In your doctrine, if I do not do works I will not be saved.

Therefore, you cannot without contradiction say I am saved without works.

Its simply an impossibility.

The meaning of a person who has obtained salvation is saved.
Salvation: going to heaven

You teach,

Saved by faith alone ie Salvation: YES, will be in heaven.

You also teach,

Going to heaven by my salvation in faith alone: NO, without works going to hell.


The conclusion you have come to is a logical fallacy.
It is simply an impossibility.

Your Theology fails logic.
Therefore it is false.

The true gospel unto salvation is:

Faith and obedience to initially be saved.

THEN

Must stay faithfull, obedient to stay saved.

The other logical possibility is also true in Theory but not Biblical, it is.

Saved initially by faith alone. note: [Excepting the premise that faith is not a work in it self]
(I know in reality faith is a work so this gospel also has contradictions)

THEN

Saved permanently because of faith alone, regardless of works.

Those are the only two common doctrines that do not contradict themselves.

Can I prove there is a thing called Initial Salvation?

Yes. If you were to read the context of Ephesians 2:8-9 (the famous saved by God's grace through faith without works passage), it is talking about “Initial Salvation.”

Ephesians 2:1 says we have been quickened (i.e. made alive).
How many times did that happen? Just one time.
Believers have been made alive spiritually one time in being transformed by God.

Ephesians 2:8 says this grace is like a gift. How many times do you receive a gift?
Just one time, right? So this is talking about a one time event of having been saved (i.e. past tense).

Just reread the chapter with an open mind on this point and you will see it.

So Ephesians 2:8-9 is talking about when we first came to the Lord and his salvation, and it is not referring to Continued Salvation. Believers have to rightly divide the difference between….

#1. “Initial Salvation by God’s grace” (without works) verses, and
#2. “Continued Salvation by the Sanctification of the Spirit” verses.

To not understand this difference is to fall into Works Alone Salvationism or turn God's grace into a license for immorality. One can fall into the error of making it all about Law with no actual grace, mercy, and forgiveness, and one can fall into error about making it all about a belief while they justify sin.
 

Bible Highlighter

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First I have just one question for you.

You taught me we are saved by faith only. Salvation ie Eternal life in faith alone.

Just as a person is hired for a job and they are not hired based upon their job performance, I would say... yes. In our Initial Salvation Experience with God... it is not based upon works but solely God's grace and mercy because it is based upon God's grace and mercy in seeking forgiveness with Jesus Christ and or believing the gospel message in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4.

So the difference is in regards to time and experience with God.
Meeting God and experiencing Him for the first time is different than the walk with God.

You said:
Question: Can I be saved by faith alone and go to heaven after I live out my days here on earth?

The way James describes this version of faith alone is that such is not the case. We need to enter the second aspect of salvation in being faithful. Faith does not remain as a belief alone but it starts off that way.
 
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Bible Highlighter

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Second point:
Gods grace saves.
It saved the Jews that obeyed the gospel of faith and works in Acts 2:38.
Those Jews did not earn there salvation by their works.

Jews and gentiles receive Gods grace by the same way.
Paul proves this to be true.

Acts 26:20
But declared first to those in Damascus and in Jerusalem, and throughout all the region of Judea, and then to the Gentiles, that they should repent, turn to God and do works befitting repentance.

Most Christians today do not know what repentance actually is.
They read the definition in some dictionary and they blindly believed that dictionary without being a good Berean.

A Biblical Case For Repentance:

At the heart, I believe the Bible teaches that "Repentance" means, "Asking God for forgiveness" (Which of course naturally then leads to the "fruits of repentance", i.e. obedience to the Lord):

Important Note: While I may believe "Repentance" does involve to a certain degree a "change of mind" (like a person changing their mind about their old life of sin), I do not think "Repentance" exclusively means a “change of mind.”

"Asking God for forgiveness of sin" can either refer to: The "Sinner's Prayer" (Initial Salvation) (Romans 10:13), and or the seasoned believer "Confessing one's sin" (Continued Salvation) (See 1 John 1:9, 1 John 2:1).

Anyways, here are my ten points using Scripture showing that "repentance" means "asking God for forgiveness of sin.”

#1. Acts 2:38,
The New Living Translation says in Acts 2:38 to "repent of your sins."
Douay Reheims says in Acts 2:38 to "Do penance."
New Life Version says in Acts 2:38 to "Be sorry for your sins"

#2. Luke 17:3 says, "Take heed to yourselves: If thy brother trespass against thee, rebuke him; and if he repent, forgive him." This doesn't make any sense if "repent" means believe in Jesus (as some teach) or to have a change of mind about sin (as others teach) or to exclusively forsake sin. Yes, we are to forsake sin as a part of repentance but that comes later after repentance (Which is to ask God for forgiveness of our sin). For how can we reconcile with a brother if we do not say we are sorry vs. just going on about life as if we did nothing wrong?


#3. Jesus said in Matthew 12:41 that the Ninevites will rise up in Judgment against this generation because they repented at the preaching of Jonah. If you were to turn to Jonah chapter 3, you would be able to see in Jonah 3:6-10 that the King of the Ninevites had told his people to:


(a) Cry out to God (i.e. Repentance) (See Jonah 3:8).
(b) Turn from their sins or evil ways (i.e. The Natural Fruits of Repentance).

#4. Matthew 3:6 (which then lines up with Matthew 3:8). Also, in Mark 1:4-5, it says John preached the "baptism of repentance" for the remission of sins (verse 4), and it then defines this "baptism of repentance" by saying they confessed their sins when they were baptized (verse 5).


#5. We see in Acts of the Apostles 8:22 a clear example of Peter telling Simon to "repent" of his wickedness in trying to pay for the Holy Spirit. Peter is telling Simon to make a prayer towards God. For Peter says that he should pray that God might forgive him. In other words, Peter is telling Simon to repent of a one time event of wickedness by way of prayer to GOD. This only makes sense if "repent" means to "ask for forgiveness."

(Continued in my next post):
 

Bible Highlighter

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#6. Ezekiel 14:6 says,
"Repent, and turn yourselves from your idols;" Repent makes the most sense here if a person is asking God for forgiveness by way of prayer instead of a person just believing in God. Naturally a person believes in God as their Savior if they are planning on forsaking their idols.

#7. We see repentance is the topic of discussion in Luke 15 (Luke 15:6) (Luke 15:10); This is then followed up by the "Parable of the Prodigal Son" with the son desiring to be reconciled with his father. We learn the WAY the Prodigal Son desired to be reconciled with his father when he said,


"I will arise and go to my father, and will say unto him, Father, I have sinned against heaven, and before thee, And am no more worthy to be called thy son: make me as one of thy hired servants." (Luke 15:18-19).


In other words, the Prodigal Son was seeking forgiveness. This ties into the point of repentance in Luke 15:6 and Luke 15:10.


#8. Luke 10:13 says,

"Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! for if the mighty works had been done in Tyre and Sidon, which have been done in you, they had a great while ago repented, sitting in sackcloth and ashes." This rules out the theory that repentance is exclusively forsaking sin. Granted, forsaking sin always follow true repentance (Asking God for forgiveness of one's sins) but forsaking sin is not repentance. The word "repented" here is describing a one time event because they "repented", sitting in sackcloth and ashes. In Jonah 3:6 we learn that the King of Nineveh sat in sackcloth and ashes. In Jonah 3:8, the King of Nineveh tells people to put on sackcloth, and cry mightily unto God (i.e. repentance): and then turn from their evil way (i.e. the fruits of repentance).

#9. John the Baptist says we are to bring forth fruits worthy of repentance (Luke 3:8). Fruits are deeds (or obedience to God). How can repentance be the same thing as the fruit? Is the fruit the same thing as the tree?


#10. Jeremiah 8:6 says, "I hearkened and heard, but they spake not aright: no man repented him of his wickedness, saying, What have I done? every one turned to his course, as the horse rusheth into the battle." Here we see the word "repented of wickedness" tied with the words, "What have I done?" This is an acknowledgement of one's sin to God as a part of asking His forgiveness.


Notable Additional Verses that Deal with Repentance
(But They Do Not Use The Word "Repent" or "Repentance"):

"For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved." (Romans 10:13).


13 "And the publican, standing afar off, would not lift up so much as his eyes unto heaven, but smote upon his breast, saying, God be merciful to me a sinner.
14 I tell you, this man went down to his house justified rather than the other: for every one that exalteth himself shall be abased; and he that humbleth himself shall be exalted. (Luke 18:13-14).


Proverbs 28:13 says whosoever confesses and forsakes sin shall have mercy.
 

Bible Highlighter

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First I have just one question for you.

You taught me we are saved by faith only. Salvation ie Eternal life in faith alone.

Question: Can I be saved by faith alone and go to heaven after I live out my days here on earth?

Second point:
Gods grace saves.
It saved the Jews that obeyed the gospel of faith and works in Acts 2:38.
Those Jews did not earn their salvation by their works.

Jews and gentiles receive Gods grace by the same way.
Paul proves this to be true.

Acts 26:20
But declared first to those in Damascus and in Jerusalem, and throughout all the region of Judea, and then to the Gentiles, that they should repent, turn to God and do works befitting repentance.

The problem that you will run up against is that nowhere in Scripture does it say that water baptism is done for salvation or entering God's kingdom. Peter tells Jewish believers that baptism saves us not for the putting away of the filth of the flesh (sin) but as an answer of having a good conscience towards God (1 Peter 1:21).

1 Peter 3:21
“The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ:”

Note: I believe Mark 16:16 is referring to Spirit baptism. For we are baptized into one Spirit.

1 Corinthians 12:13
“For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.”

I have been water baptized but I did it many many many years later after I was saved by God's grace. I did not do it for salvation. I did it to show others before God that I was a believer in Jesus Christ saved by His grace (as a public profession).
 

Titus

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#6. Ezekiel 14:6 says,
"Repent, and turn yourselves from your idols;" Repent makes the most sense here if a person is asking God for forgiveness by way of prayer instead of a person just believing in God. Naturally a person believes in God as their Savior if they are planning on forsaking their idols.

#7. We see repentance is the topic of discussion in Luke 15 (Luke 15:6) (Luke 15:10); This is then followed up by the "Parable of the Prodigal Son" with the son desiring to be reconciled with his father. We learn the WAY the Prodigal Son desired to be reconciled with his father when he said,


"I will arise and go to my father, and will say unto him, Father, I have sinned against heaven, and before thee, And am no more worthy to be called thy son: make me as one of thy hired servants." (Luke 15:18-19).


In other words, the Prodigal Son was seeking forgiveness. This ties into the point of repentance in Luke 15:6 and Luke 15:10.


#8. Luke 10:13 says,

"Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! for if the mighty works had been done in Tyre and Sidon, which have been done in you, they had a great while ago repented, sitting in sackcloth and ashes." This rules out the theory that repentance is exclusively forsaking sin. Granted, forsaking sin always follow true repentance (Asking God for forgiveness of one's sins) but forsaking sin is not repentance. The word "repented" here is describing a one time event because they "repented", sitting in sackcloth and ashes. In Jonah 3:6 we learn that the King of Nineveh sat in sackcloth and ashes. In Jonah 3:8, the King of Nineveh tells people to put on sackcloth, and cry mightily unto God (i.e. repentance): and then turn from their evil way (i.e. the fruits of repentance).

#9. John the Baptist says we are to bring forth fruits worthy of repentance (Luke 3:8). Fruits are deeds (or obedience to God). How can repentance be the same thing as the fruit? Is the fruit the same thing as the tree?


#10. Jeremiah 8:6 says, "I hearkened and heard, but they spake not aright: no man repented him of his wickedness, saying, What have I done? every one turned to his course, as the horse rusheth into the battle." Here we see the word "repented of wickedness" tied with the words, "What have I done?" This is an acknowledgement of one's sin to God as a part of asking His forgiveness.


Notable Additional Verses that Deal with Repentance
(But They Do Not Use The Word "Repent" or "Repentance"):

"For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved." (Romans 10:13).


13 "And the publican, standing afar off, would not lift up so much as his eyes unto heaven, but smote upon his breast, saying, God be merciful to me a sinner.
14 I tell you, this man went down to his house justified rather than the other: for every one that exalteth himself shall be abased; and he that humbleth himself shall be exalted. (Luke 18:13-14).


Proverbs 28:13 says whosoever confesses and forsakes sin shall have mercy.


I don't believe you answered my question.

Salvation is to be saved.

You keep telling me salvation is obtained with faith alone.

So, who gets to heaven by faith alone?

Question: Can I be saved by faith alone and go to heaven after I live out my days here on earth?
 

Titus

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Sir, you can believe all kinds of things on what you think the scriptures say,

Note: I believe Mark 16:16 is referring to Spirit baptism. For we are baptized into one Spirit.

God says what He means and means what He says.

Get in touch with Greek scholars and ask them what baptizo means in Mark 16:15-16.

It must be water.

Jesus commands His disciples to baptize.
Matthew 28:19
Mark 16:15-16

Men do not baptize men with the Holy Spirit.
Only God baptizes with the Holy Spirit.

Men only baptize men in water.

Holy Spirit baptism is not a command.

Mark 16:15-16 and Matthew 28:19 is commanded by Jesus for His disciples to go and baptize.

Peter saw Cornelius get the gift of the Holy Spirit, it was not commanded nor did Peter do it.
Acts 10:44.

Then later Peter commands water baptism, and Peter did the baptizing.
Acts 10:47-48
 

Bible Highlighter

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I don't believe you answered my question.

Salvation is to be saved.

You keep telling me salvation is obtained with faith alone.

So, who gets to heaven by faith alone?

The thief on the cross.
Those who die on their deathbed and accept Jesus as their Savior.
Those who accept Jesus as their Savior and they die a few days later (not knowing they were going to die).

Babies who die are not even saved by faith alone even.
They are saved purely by God's grace.
For if Jesus never went to the cross, then all of mankind would have been doomed.
Of course we know that would have never happened.
For God is love.

You said:
Question: Can I be saved by faith alone and go to heaven after I live out my days here on earth?

Your question makes a false assumption about salvation that would ignore the first aspect of salvation. You are looking at things from the second aspect of salvation only and drawing the wrong conclusion. We agree that within a Christian's life being lived out it is not by faith alone but they must be faithful. No doubt about it. But your loaded question implies the same trick that Perpetual Belief Alone Proponents use. They say that if you are saved at one point in the past, then that implies you are forever saved. But the Bible teaches that salvation is conditional. We have to meet the terms of the contract or agreement God gave us in His Holy Word (the Bible).

Questions can be loaded. It would be like asking: Do you like the green cats that breath fire or the purple cats that fly and shoot lasers from their eyes? Such a question is loaded and not based on any actual truth. Your question makes a false loaded assumption that the 1st aspect of salvation does not exist (When in reality it does). Your failure to note the verses on this aspect of salvation in the Bible is simply you not being aware of them. I encourage you to look at Ephesians 2:8-9. Is it talking about Initial Salvation?
 

Bible Highlighter

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Sir, you can believe all kinds of things on what you think the scriptures say,

I can say the same for you, but we both cannot be right.
My encouragement to you is to read Ephesians 2 several times in asking God's help in understanding it.
Ask yourself, “Is Ephesians 2:8-9 talking about Initial Salvation?” Yes, or no?

You said:
God says what He means and means what He says.

Get in touch with Greek scholars and ask them what baptizo means in Mark 16:15-16.

It must be water.

No. It only means water because that is what you want it to mean. Your church beliefs, or your own personal bias or experience has led you to that conclusion.

Let's look at the word baptismos (Which is something you probably never considered before).

Hebrews 9:10 says, “Which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of reformation.” The word “washings” is the Greek word “baptismos” (βαπτισμός) (Check out here for the Strong’s definition). In other words, Hebrews 9:10 is saying that diverse baptisms (washings) were imposed on believers until the time of reformation. Meaning, water baptism will give way or pass away until the time of reformation (Which means that Spirit baptism is now the one and only true baptism for today). The English word baptisms is used for this Greek word baptismos.

Yet, this word is used in Hebrews 9:10 and it is saying that baptism was imposed upon believers until the time of reformation. That's what your not getting.

Jesus commands His disciples to baptize.
Matthew 28:19
Mark 16:15-16

Spirit baptism.
Remember what Jesus said.

“For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost not many days hence.” (Acts of the Apostles 1:5).

You said:
Men do not baptize men with the Holy Spirit.
Only God baptizes with the Holy Spirit.

Not true.

Acts of the Apostles 8:14-18 says:
“Now when the apostles which were at Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent unto them Peter and John: Who, when they were come down, prayed for them, that they might receive the Holy Ghost: (For as yet he was fallen upon none of them: only they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.) Then laid they their hands on them, and they received the Holy Ghost. And when Simon saw that through laying on of the apostles' hands the Holy Ghost was given, he offered them money,...”

Acts of the Apostles 19:1-7 says:
“And it came to pass, that, while Apollos was at Corinth, Paul having passed through the upper coasts came to Ephesus: and finding certain disciples, He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost. And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism. Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus. When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied. And all the men were about twelve.”

You said:
Peter saw Cornelius get the gift of the Holy Spirit, it was not commanded nor did Peter do it.
Acts 10:44.

Then later Peter commands water baptism, and Peter did the baptizing.
Acts 10:47-48

The receiving of the Spirit is not always the same way (As I have shown in the above verses).
Peter only water baptized because he did not fully understand yet what Jesus meant by His words on the great commission. Remember, Peter did not know the Gentiles would be included UNTIL God gave him vision later and he had Peter go to Cornelius' house. So if Peter did not know about the Gentiles inclusion until after his encounter with Cornelius, then logic dictates that Peter was still trying to figure things out involving God's will more perfectly.

For example: Apollos needed to be explained the way of God more perfectly on this matter.

Acts of the Apostles 18:24-26 says, “And a certain Jew named Apollos, born at Alexandria, an eloquent man, and mighty in the scriptures, came to Ephesus. This man was instructed in the way of the Lord; and being fervent in the spirit, he spake and taught diligently the things of the Lord, knowing only the baptism of John. And he began to speak boldly in the synagogue: whom when Aquila and Priscilla had heard, they took him unto them, and expounded unto him the way of God more perfectly.

In short, Aquila and Priscilla (who were taught by Paul) expounded the Word of God more perfectly unto Apollos because he only knew of John’s baptism of water. Apollos needed to learn of Spirit baptism (Which is the true New Covenant way of being baptized).

What is interesting is that the very next chapter Paul tells some Ephesian believers about this Spirit baptism (with them only being aware of water baptism by John). If they have been watered baptised, then they surely do not need to be water baptised again. Such a thing is illogical.
 
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Titus

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The thief on the cross.
Those who die on their deathbed and accept Jesus as their Savior.
Those who accept Jesus as their Savior and they die a few days later (not knowing they were going to die).

Babies who die are not even saved by faith alone even.
They are saved purely by God's grace.
For if Jesus never went to the cross, then all of mankind would have been doomed.
Of course we know that would have never happened.
For God is love.



Your question makes a false assumption about salvation that would ignore the first aspect of salvation. You are looking at things from the second aspect of salvation only and drawing the wrong conclusion. We agree that within a Christian's life being lived out it is not by faith alone but they must be faithful. No doubt about it. But your loaded question implies the same trick that Perpetual Belief Alone Proponents use. They say that if you are saved at one point in the past, then that implies you are forever saved. But the Bible teaches that salvation is conditional. We have to meet the terms of the contract or agreement God gave us in His Holy Word (the Bible).

Questions can be loaded. It would be like asking: Do you like the green cats that breath fire or the purple cats that fly and shoot lasers from their eyes? Such a question is loaded and not based on any actual truth. Your question makes a false loaded assumption that the 1st aspect of salvation does not exist (When in reality it does). Your failure to note the verses on this aspect of salvation in the Bible is simply you not being aware of them. I encourage you to look at Ephesians 2:8-9. Is it talking about Initial Salvation?

The thief on the cross had faith alone?
Belief only?
The thief had repentance.
Godly sorrow for His sins against God.

Once a person is saved and then sins, what does God teach we must do?
1John 1:9
If we confess our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

After initial salvation, when we sin we must repent by confessing our sin to God.

You must speculate by teaching the thief was not already saved at one point in his life.
This is why all he would have had to do on the cross was believe and repent.

Repentance is not belief.

There goes faith only.

So far we have the Thief
believing 1
Repenting 2
That is more than faith alone.

The thief could have been obedient to Gods commands to be saved yet fell away.

No one that claims the thief never did works to be saved can prove that claim.

All the Jews in Jerusalem and Judea were baptized by John to be saved.
The thief was a Jew. To say he was not baptized is without any evidence to prove this claim.

Mark 1:4
John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins.

Mark 1:5
Then all the land of Judea and those from Jerusalem went out to him in the Jordan river confessing their sins.

The thief could have been baptized to be saved, then later in life commited sin.

No one can prove he wasn't baptized
No one can prove he was.

So, this argument that he did no works to be saved is pure speculation.

Now we have:

Faith 1
Repentance 1
Baptism 1

That is not faith only!

The thief showed Godly sorrow for his sins,

2Corinthians 7:10
For Godly sorrow produces repentance leading to salvation, not to be regretted; but the sorrow of the world produces death.

This is a fictitious story that the thief was saved by his belief and nothing else.

Repentance is a work also.
All commandments of God are works of righteousness that we must work/obey

Acts 17:30
Truly these times of ignorance God overlooked, but now commands all men everywhere to repent.
Mark 1:4
John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins
 
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Bible Highlighter

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Respectfully Disagree - see next statement:

Actually there are THREE aspects/tenses of time, believers wishing to
reach the world, with The Correct Gospel (NOT Accursed), need to be
Concerned with, were covered here: post # 247

Actually, I see it as four tenses or aspects.
But the two aspects we NEED to be concerned about is the two middle ones that involve our cooperation.
Check out this write up I did here to learn about the four aspects of salvation.

YouAnd said:
s t r e s s [/I]that "The Precious BLOOD Of The
Only Saviour, JESUS CHRIST, Is God's FULL And All-Sufficient PAYMENT
FOR
the Penalty Of All sin! IF IT, according to Critics, is at all INsufficient, then
"we are one and All LOST, as that means: "CHRIST Died In Vain!"

Yes, I believe we are saved by having faith in His blood. No doubt about it.

“Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;” (Romans 3:25).

This is the 1st aspect of salvation.

But there is another blood verse that relates to the second aspect of salvation that you may not have considered before. It's a most challenging verse for Perpetual Belief Alone Christians.

1 John 1:7 says:
“But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin.”

Walking in the light is loving your brother according to the indirect wording in 1 John 2:9-11. So you have to love your brother for the blood to also cleanse you. It’s salvation does not remain forever as a belief alone in Jesus. Yes. It starts off that way when we are first saved by God's grace, but it does not remain that way.

Again, this two aspect salvation will cause Confusion. ie:

1) "foundational or temporary" salvation promotes initial salvation is by
God's GRACE, but the ultimate Finishing of salvation is ULTIMATELY up to
the individual (who sins occasionally), repenting and being forgiven Again
And Again. Meaning IF they fail, "And DIE" Before "the Very LAST chance"
to repent/be forgiven, then they are ETERNALLY LOST?[/QUOTE]

Yes. I wish things were easier, but things are not as we want them to be.
Paul says, Work out your salvation with fear and trembling in Philippians 2:12.
I believe this involves confessing and forsaking sin and living a holy life.
Proverbs 28:13 says he that confesses and forsakes sin shall have mercy.
Follow after holiness without which no man shall see the Lord (Hebrews 12:14).

Proverbs 28:13 = Grace and Sanctification.
Luke 15:11-32 = Grace.
Hebrews 12:14 = Sanctification.
1 John 1:9 = Grace.
1 John 1:7 = Sanctification.
Luke 18:9-14 = Grace.
John 8:11, John 8:47, 1 John 3:10 = Sanctification.
2 Thessalonians 2:13-14 is Grace and Sanctification.
1 Corinthians 15:1-4 = Grace.
Romans 8:13 = Sanctification.
 

Titus

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I can say the same for you, but we both cannot be right.
My encouragement to you is to read Ephesians 2 several times in asking God's help in understanding it.
Ask yourself, “Is Ephesians 2:8-9 talking about Initial Salvation?” Yes, or no?



No. It only means water because that is what you want it to mean. Your church beliefs, or your own personal bias or experience has led you to that conclusion.

Let's look at the word baptismos (Which is something you probably never considered before).

Hebrews 9:10 says, “Which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of reformation.” The word “washings” is the Greek word “baptismos” (βαπτισμός) (Check out here for the Strong’s definition). In other words, Hebrews 9:10 is saying that diverse baptisms (washings) were imposed on believers until the time of reformation. Meaning, water baptism will give way or pass away until the time of reformation (Which means that Spirit baptism is now the one and only true baptism for today). The English word baptisms is used for this Greek word baptismos.

Yet, this word is used in Hebrews 9:10 and it is saying that baptism was imposed upon believers until the time of reformation. That's what your not getting.



Spirit baptism.
Remember what Jesus said.

“For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost not many days hence.” (Acts of the Apostles 1:5).



Not true.

Acts of the Apostles 8:14-18 says:
“Now when the apostles which were at Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent unto them Peter and John: Who, when they were come down, prayed for them, that they might receive the Holy Ghost: (For as yet he was fallen upon none of them: only they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.) Then laid they their hands on them, and they received the Holy Ghost. And when Simon saw that through laying on of the apostles' hands the Holy Ghost was given, he offered them money,...”

Acts of the Apostles 19:1-7 says:
“And it came to pass, that, while Apollos was at Corinth, Paul having passed through the upper coasts came to Ephesus: and finding certain disciples, He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost. And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism. Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus. When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied. And all the men were about twelve.”



The receiving of the Spirit is not always the same way (As I have shown in the above verses).
Peter only water baptized because he did not fully understand yet what Jesus meant by His words on the great commission. Remember, Peter did not know the Gentiles would be included UNTIL God gave him vision later and he had Peter go to Cornelius' house. So if Peter did not know about the Gentiles inclusion until after his encounter with Cornelius, then logic dictates that Peter was still trying to figure things out involving God's will more perfectly.

For example: Apollos needed to be explained the way of God more perfectly on this matter.

Acts of the Apostles 18:24-26 says, “And a certain Jew named Apollos, born at Alexandria, an eloquent man, and mighty in the scriptures, came to Ephesus. This man was instructed in the way of the Lord; and being fervent in the spirit, he spake and taught diligently the things of the Lord, knowing only the baptism of John. And he began to speak boldly in the synagogue: whom when Aquila and Priscilla had heard, they took him unto them, and expounded unto him the way of God more perfectly.

In short, Aquila and Priscilla (who were taught by Paul) expounded the Word of God more perfectly unto Apollos because he only knew of John’s baptism of water. Apollos needed to learn of Spirit baptism (Which is the true New Covenant way of being baptized).

What is interesting is that the very next chapter Paul tells some Ephesian believers about this Spirit baptism (with them only being aware of water baptism by John). If they have been watered baptised, then they surely do not need to be water baptised again. Such a thing is illogical.


Acts 8. The apostles laying on of hands was never COMMANDED!

Water immersion is!
Mark 16:15-16 ; Matthew 28:19 That disproves your argument.

Second, gifts of the
Holy Spirit is not the same as Holy Spirit baptism.

You missed a very important point in Acts 8.

Simon was saved yet he never got any Holy Spirit gift or Holy Spirit baptism.
But the baptism he did receive was water immersion.

Acts 8:12-13 Simon believed the gospel
Acts 8:12. Simon was water baptized

Acts 8:13-24 Simon was a saved Christian yet never got Holy Spirit baptism or gifts of the Spirit.

Acts 8 proves my position that the baptism in Mark 16:15-16 is water.
 

Titus

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Let's look at the word baptismos (Which is something you probably never considered before)

What an arrogant thing to say to someone you know nothing about!

I am well aware of the word baptismos.
I am well aware of Hebrews 9:10
Concerned only with foods and drinks, various baptismos, and fleshly ordinances.....


You need to go to a Greek scholar and ask him the difference between
Baptizo and Baptismos

They are NOT the same word.

Baptismo is never used in any of the baptism in Jesus' gospel. Not once!

Acts 2:38 baptizo
Mark 16:25-16 baptizo
1Peter 3:20-21 baptizo
Acts 22 :16 baptizo
Acts 8:12. baptizo
Etc.

Jesus's baptism in Mark 16:15-16 is unanimous accepted by best Greek scholars as baptizo ie water immersion.

You have mistranslated alot of passages.

Acts 8:38
So he commanded the chariot to stand still. And both Phillip and the Eunuch went down into the water and he baptizo him.